WHO IS JESUS CHRIST ?
Part One
By
O. Khodjo Th.M
Welcome
to mis-translations and mis-interpretations
We
only have one lord and one god…
1. "Him which is, and which was, and which is to come" (Rev. 1:4).
2. "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, which is, and which was, and which is to come" (Rev. 1:08).
3. "I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last" (Rev. 1:11).
4. "I am the first and the last" (Rev. 1:17)
5. "I am He that lives, and was DEAD; and, behold, I am alive" (Rev. 1:18).
It’s the same One. It’s the same Alpha and Omega, the beginning and end, this is, was and is to come. “was DEAD and behold I was alive.”
6. "the first and the last, which was DEAD, and is alive" (Rev. 2:08).
7. "Holy, Holy, Holy, Lord God Almighty, which was, and is, and is to come" (Rev. 4:08).
8. "Oh Lord God Almighty, which art, and was, and are to come" (Rev. 11:17).
9. "Thou art righteous, O Lord, which are, and was, and shall be" (Rev. 16:5).
10. "And he said unto me, It is done. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give unto him that is athirst of the fountain of the water of life freely" (Rev. 21:6).
11. "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last" (Rev. 22:13).
So this “Alpha and Omega,” beginning and end,” “the First and the last,” “who is, and was, and is to come.” Was DEAD.
This is not God the Father! God the Father never died and God cannot die.
Now there is a scripture (1 Tim. 2:5), that I have been taking another look at. Like I say, if I make a mistake I just have no problem saying I was wrong about this or that.
1Tim 6:13 I charge thee in the sight of God(so who is the subject here - God), who gives life to all things, and of Christ Jesus, who before Pontius Pilate witnessed the good confession;
v. 14 that thou keep the commandment, without spot, without reproach, until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ:
v. 15 which in its own times He shall show, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords;
Well you say that’s got to be talking about Jesus Christ. Well maybe not. I mean God is everything that Jesus Christ is too, you know. Who is the Saviour of the world? Jesus Christ? God is the Saviour of the world! Yes Jesus Christ is the channel through who it comes. But God almighty is the Saviour of the world. He’s also the Creator. We are actually going to find out, who actually did the creating? Christ. But who is the Creator? God the Father, okay. But we are going to see it specifically, in detail. So then it says;
1Tim 6:15 “which in its own times He shall show, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords;
v. 16 who only hath immortality…”
I always thought that was speaking about Christ. But I’m thinking now, no, He’s talking about God. God only has immortality;
v. 16 “… dwelling in light unapproachable; whom no man hath seen, nor can see…”
Isn’t this talking about God, the Father? Well what does it matter?
Well here’s the thing. Where does it say if somebody is able to have the title God that you have to be eternal for that? I don’t know of any.
There is no doubt about it Jesus Christ now has `` immortality that means He can’t die. But we are talking about a time when God ‘only’ had immortality. Where did Christ say He got His life? He got it from the Father (John 5:26).
But you always want to think about these things. Someone will say, ‘well that’s talking about His human flesh, you know human.’ No, I think these things are dual. These things pertain to Him ‘before’ His human flesh. You know He talked about the glories and stuff He had before (John 17:5). Did He have a glory as a human? He prayed for the glory He ‘once’ had, so did He not have any glory then? Well, He did have glory. We read that in flesh and blood He did have glory.
John 1:14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.
He didn’t have the glory that He had though. I mean it was much more, it was much grander. He didn’t have all that glory, because He diminished Himself. We are coming to that very powerful scripture.
[Someone's comment: Scripture says, “My Father is greater than I.”] Some say, ‘well yea He says that, because He was still in the flesh.’ They say, 'well yea if He’s in the flesh.' But then we have something that I discovered, I never heard anyone else say it. Jesus had a God! It’s right there. After His resurrection, He had a God (John 20:17).
John 20:17 Jesus said to her, "Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, 'I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.'"
So you think the Father had a God? Come on. Somebody will say, ‘well how could you be God and you have a God, you are lesser than God, so it can’t be.’ Yes you can.
We have to learn what it means to take the title God, it’s more of a title, like somebody’s last name. God’s name is not God. God is a title. God is the same title that the heathers use. In the Hebrew it’s EL - Elohim, El is singular, God, Elohim is plural. What did the pagans call their god? elohim, they called them el and elohim.
In the NT we have Lord and God, Kurios and Theos, those are Greek words. What does Theos mean in Greek? God. Who is the Greek Theos? Zeus. It’s the same word. So you can apply the same word to a man or God, but they take on different meanings, it depends on which one you’re applying it to. We have knowledge and God has knowledge. Is it the same knowledge? No. We have a certain amount of power, God has power. Same power? No, it's a world of difference, but you use the same word to describe it. You know we have a certain amount of righteous imputed to us and God is righteous, which is the most righteous? It’s the same word though.
It says when Jesus was raised, He was raised a living Spirit.
1Co 15:45 And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.
Was He a living Spirit before that? I don’t know. I tried to find a scripture in the OT (the OT is big), that said ‘God is spirit,’ and I couldn’t find one, you know about the OT God. In the NT Jesus Christ said of His Father.
John 4: 21 “…the hour cometh, when neither in this mountain, nor in Jerusalem, shall ye worship the Father.”
v. 22 “Ye worship that which ye know not: we worship that which we know; for salvation is from the Jews.”
v. 23 “But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and truth…”
God is spirit. We have a statement like that in the NT. We don’t have one like that in the OT, at least I can’t find one.
So could Jesus Christ be as mighty as God and still be able to die? Not only could He, He had to. The One who spoke to Moses, is the One who died. How did He die? Now no one could have killed Him, He was too powerful. But He could lay down His life. He could do it Himself and He did. Put all the scripture together. Christ said, “I lay down My life, no one takes it from Me.” (John 10:17-18). Someone would have you believe that God said, You will die. No, He volunteered. He said “I lay down My life,” no one takes it, He volunteered. But how could He do that? He’s the Creator of the universe!
[3] "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I AM [Gk: I exist]" (John 8:58). "Ere Abraham came into being, I AM" (Concordant Version).
Well some say it means, before Abraham was, I Am He. What does that change? That doesn’t change anything, I am He. Who? What did God say to Moses when he said, who shall I say sent me, when I go back to Egypt? He said you tell them, "I AM WHO I AM." Or in the KJ, “I AM THAT I AM” sent you. I existed, the One who exist, I Am, that’s the One, tell them I Am sent you. Christ said, “before Abraham was I Am,” alright. So, and the personage that spoke to Moses and said “I Am” you go back a couple of verse and you see, it’s God. It was God who said I AM, alright.
Now when you go through the OT, you read about ‘God’ and you read about ‘the Lord.’ We are going to find out who this ‘God’ and who this ‘Lord’ is, or is it the same one or who in the world is it talking about? Because if God is God and Jesus is God and all through the Bible we read about God, well which one is it talking about? What do we know about the Father - God? If no man ever saw Him and no man ever heard His voice. Show me something in here, that God said it. Because the second it was said, it can’t be God, because nobody ever heard His voice.
[4] John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God...
Actually and literally this verse says, "God was the Word" (Concordant).
John 1:1-3 …and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by HIM (the Word) and without Him was not anything made that was made.
John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelled among us, the only begotten of the Father?"
The Word of God, that is the Word - Logos - Spokesman. Jesus Christ has a name on His side (Revelation 19) and that name is, “the Word of God” (Vs. 13). Jesus Christ is the Word - Spokesman - Logos - representative - messenger of God. Because nobody has ever heard God or seen Him. So if God wants to convey something to the human race, He does it through His Word - His Spokesman - His Messenger - His Logos - Jesus Christ.
Now in Genesis how do we know that it’s not God the Father speaking? Because no one has ever heard His voice or seen His shape for that matter. So whenever you hear a voice, it’s not God...it cant be God or else the Bible will contradict the statement of Christ.
[5] How can we be absolutely sure that this is not the Father speaking in Genesis? Answer: "And the Father Himself, which has sent Me, has born witness of Me. Ye have neither heard His voice at any time, nor seen His shape" (John 5:37). Did Moses hear God’s voice? Answer: "Did ever people hear the voice of GOD speaking out of the midst of the fire, as you have heard, and live?" (Deut. 4:33). Did Moses see the shape of God? "you shall SEE MY BACK PARTS." (Exodus 33:18-23). This is Jesus!
[6] "For by HIM [Jesus] were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: ALL THINGS were created by Him and for Him" (Col. 1:15-19).
By Jesus Christ... that’s right He made everything.
"Let this mind be in you, which was [is] also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made Himself of no reputation, and took upon Him the form of a servant [slave], and was made in the likeness of men"(Phil. 2:5-7).
Now here we learn a little more of what this is about. When it says “mind” it is the disposition of God Himself. Where it says “equal with God” it is the same amount or degree and so on.
“Being in the form of God…” is being inherently in the form of God. Inherently, that’s an interesting word, it means possessed at birth or the inborn, right. I thought now that is interesting, that's 'before' He became man, He was by birth - inborn.
Strong’s uses the word, He existed as a 'innate.' Existent as an innate birth, a right by birth. That is what it means, a right by or through birth. Jesus Christ was BORN. To which of the angels did He ever say, you are My son I have begotten you... as a little boy in a manger? He was His Son, 'from the beginning!' The whole idea of Jesus Christ, was to be a Son, from the beginning. Now it says.
Phi 2:6…thought it not robbery to be equal with God,
v. 7 but made Himself of no reputation, and took on Himself the form of a servant (slave), and was made in the likeness of man.
So this was an inborn right of birth, to have these powers. What did He do? Where it says, "He made Himself of no reputation," the KJ margin says, He emptied Himself of all His privileges. I mean He is so mighty and everything, I mean you’re not going to kill Him. He has got to reduce down, to something really small, compared to what He was. He voluntarily did that, “He took it on Himself,” you see. He was made low enough to kill. It says in Hebrews, “A little lower than the angels,” so they could kill Him. How was that accomplished? He emptied Himself of everything God had given to Him. I guess God could have taken it away, but He didn’t take it away, Christ gave it up.
Now here is a verse you might not think proves that Christ is the Creator.
[7] “For though there be that are called gods (Theos is plural), whether in heaven or on earth; as there are gods many, and lords many; But to us there is but ONE GOD, the Father, OF Whom are all things, and we in Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ BY Whom are all things, and we by Him" (I Cor. 8:5-6).
Everything, “all things” are out 'of ' God. The word "of" in this verse is ek ex and it means--origin, from, out of, like exist (to get out of, to exist). Here is the Concordant Translation "there is One God, the Father, OUT OF WHOM ALL IS." If "all things are out of God," then certainly that includes Jesus. Where is Jesus Christ 'from'? Is He some 'thing'? He is the grandest thing of all. “All things,” are ek ex from the Father. So where did Christ come from? It says “all things” are of or out of (ek ex) God. There is only one God, the Father, and we in Him. “And one Lord Jesus Christ BY Whom” that means through or the channel of. There it is!
Everything, all knowledge, the plan of the universe is out of God. But then it is channelled through Jesus Christ. Why? He’s the Spokesman, and the creator, and the Saviour, and the example to humanity. Because God can’t come down and face us, face to face. Christ in His glory, in the OT, you couldn’t face Him either, it would have blown you away. But He emptied Himself. Christ talked about "My Father, your Father; My God, your God." (John 20:17)
So everything there is, is out of God and then it is through or by Jesus Christ, that He channelled everything that there is.
1. "Him which is, and which was, and which is to come" (Rev. 1:4).
2. "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, which is, and which was, and which is to come" (Rev. 1:08).
3. "I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last" (Rev. 1:11).
4. "I am the first and the last" (Rev. 1:17)
5. "I am He that lives, and was DEAD; and, behold, I am alive" (Rev. 1:18).
It’s the same One. It’s the same Alpha and Omega, the beginning and end, this is, was and is to come. “was DEAD and behold I was alive.”
6. "the first and the last, which was DEAD, and is alive" (Rev. 2:08).
7. "Holy, Holy, Holy, Lord God Almighty, which was, and is, and is to come" (Rev. 4:08).
8. "Oh Lord God Almighty, which art, and was, and are to come" (Rev. 11:17).
9. "Thou art righteous, O Lord, which are, and was, and shall be" (Rev. 16:5).
10. "And he said unto me, It is done. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give unto him that is athirst of the fountain of the water of life freely" (Rev. 21:6).
11. "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last" (Rev. 22:13).
So this “Alpha and Omega,” beginning and end,” “the First and the last,” “who is, and was, and is to come.” Was DEAD.
This is not God the Father! God the Father never died and God cannot die.
Now there is a scripture (1 Tim. 2:5), that I have been taking another look at. Like I say, if I make a mistake I just have no problem saying I was wrong about this or that.
1Tim 6:13 I charge thee in the sight of God(so who is the subject here - God), who gives life to all things, and of Christ Jesus, who before Pontius Pilate witnessed the good confession;
v. 14 that thou keep the commandment, without spot, without reproach, until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ:
v. 15 which in its own times He shall show, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords;
Well you say that’s got to be talking about Jesus Christ. Well maybe not. I mean God is everything that Jesus Christ is too, you know. Who is the Saviour of the world? Jesus Christ? God is the Saviour of the world! Yes Jesus Christ is the channel through who it comes. But God almighty is the Saviour of the world. He’s also the Creator. We are actually going to find out, who actually did the creating? Christ. But who is the Creator? God the Father, okay. But we are going to see it specifically, in detail. So then it says;
1Tim 6:15 “which in its own times He shall show, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords;
v. 16 who only hath immortality…”
I always thought that was speaking about Christ. But I’m thinking now, no, He’s talking about God. God only has immortality;
v. 16 “… dwelling in light unapproachable; whom no man hath seen, nor can see…”
Isn’t this talking about God, the Father? Well what does it matter?
Well here’s the thing. Where does it say if somebody is able to have the title God that you have to be eternal for that? I don’t know of any.
There is no doubt about it Jesus Christ now has `` immortality that means He can’t die. But we are talking about a time when God ‘only’ had immortality. Where did Christ say He got His life? He got it from the Father (John 5:26).
But you always want to think about these things. Someone will say, ‘well that’s talking about His human flesh, you know human.’ No, I think these things are dual. These things pertain to Him ‘before’ His human flesh. You know He talked about the glories and stuff He had before (John 17:5). Did He have a glory as a human? He prayed for the glory He ‘once’ had, so did He not have any glory then? Well, He did have glory. We read that in flesh and blood He did have glory.
John 1:14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.
He didn’t have the glory that He had though. I mean it was much more, it was much grander. He didn’t have all that glory, because He diminished Himself. We are coming to that very powerful scripture.
[Someone's comment: Scripture says, “My Father is greater than I.”] Some say, ‘well yea He says that, because He was still in the flesh.’ They say, 'well yea if He’s in the flesh.' But then we have something that I discovered, I never heard anyone else say it. Jesus had a God! It’s right there. After His resurrection, He had a God (John 20:17).
John 20:17 Jesus said to her, "Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, 'I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.'"
So you think the Father had a God? Come on. Somebody will say, ‘well how could you be God and you have a God, you are lesser than God, so it can’t be.’ Yes you can.
We have to learn what it means to take the title God, it’s more of a title, like somebody’s last name. God’s name is not God. God is a title. God is the same title that the heathers use. In the Hebrew it’s EL - Elohim, El is singular, God, Elohim is plural. What did the pagans call their god? elohim, they called them el and elohim.
In the NT we have Lord and God, Kurios and Theos, those are Greek words. What does Theos mean in Greek? God. Who is the Greek Theos? Zeus. It’s the same word. So you can apply the same word to a man or God, but they take on different meanings, it depends on which one you’re applying it to. We have knowledge and God has knowledge. Is it the same knowledge? No. We have a certain amount of power, God has power. Same power? No, it's a world of difference, but you use the same word to describe it. You know we have a certain amount of righteous imputed to us and God is righteous, which is the most righteous? It’s the same word though.
It says when Jesus was raised, He was raised a living Spirit.
1Co 15:45 And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.
Was He a living Spirit before that? I don’t know. I tried to find a scripture in the OT (the OT is big), that said ‘God is spirit,’ and I couldn’t find one, you know about the OT God. In the NT Jesus Christ said of His Father.
John 4: 21 “…the hour cometh, when neither in this mountain, nor in Jerusalem, shall ye worship the Father.”
v. 22 “Ye worship that which ye know not: we worship that which we know; for salvation is from the Jews.”
v. 23 “But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and truth…”
God is spirit. We have a statement like that in the NT. We don’t have one like that in the OT, at least I can’t find one.
So could Jesus Christ be as mighty as God and still be able to die? Not only could He, He had to. The One who spoke to Moses, is the One who died. How did He die? Now no one could have killed Him, He was too powerful. But He could lay down His life. He could do it Himself and He did. Put all the scripture together. Christ said, “I lay down My life, no one takes it from Me.” (John 10:17-18). Someone would have you believe that God said, You will die. No, He volunteered. He said “I lay down My life,” no one takes it, He volunteered. But how could He do that? He’s the Creator of the universe!
[3] "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I AM [Gk: I exist]" (John 8:58). "Ere Abraham came into being, I AM" (Concordant Version).
Well some say it means, before Abraham was, I Am He. What does that change? That doesn’t change anything, I am He. Who? What did God say to Moses when he said, who shall I say sent me, when I go back to Egypt? He said you tell them, "I AM WHO I AM." Or in the KJ, “I AM THAT I AM” sent you. I existed, the One who exist, I Am, that’s the One, tell them I Am sent you. Christ said, “before Abraham was I Am,” alright. So, and the personage that spoke to Moses and said “I Am” you go back a couple of verse and you see, it’s God. It was God who said I AM, alright.
Now when you go through the OT, you read about ‘God’ and you read about ‘the Lord.’ We are going to find out who this ‘God’ and who this ‘Lord’ is, or is it the same one or who in the world is it talking about? Because if God is God and Jesus is God and all through the Bible we read about God, well which one is it talking about? What do we know about the Father - God? If no man ever saw Him and no man ever heard His voice. Show me something in here, that God said it. Because the second it was said, it can’t be God, because nobody ever heard His voice.
[4] John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God...
Actually and literally this verse says, "God was the Word" (Concordant).
John 1:1-3 …and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by HIM (the Word) and without Him was not anything made that was made.
John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelled among us, the only begotten of the Father?"
The Word of God, that is the Word - Logos - Spokesman. Jesus Christ has a name on His side (Revelation 19) and that name is, “the Word of God” (Vs. 13). Jesus Christ is the Word - Spokesman - Logos - representative - messenger of God. Because nobody has ever heard God or seen Him. So if God wants to convey something to the human race, He does it through His Word - His Spokesman - His Messenger - His Logos - Jesus Christ.
Now in Genesis how do we know that it’s not God the Father speaking? Because no one has ever heard His voice or seen His shape for that matter. So whenever you hear a voice, it’s not God...it cant be God or else the Bible will contradict the statement of Christ.
[5] How can we be absolutely sure that this is not the Father speaking in Genesis? Answer: "And the Father Himself, which has sent Me, has born witness of Me. Ye have neither heard His voice at any time, nor seen His shape" (John 5:37). Did Moses hear God’s voice? Answer: "Did ever people hear the voice of GOD speaking out of the midst of the fire, as you have heard, and live?" (Deut. 4:33). Did Moses see the shape of God? "you shall SEE MY BACK PARTS." (Exodus 33:18-23). This is Jesus!
[6] "For by HIM [Jesus] were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: ALL THINGS were created by Him and for Him" (Col. 1:15-19).
By Jesus Christ... that’s right He made everything.
"Let this mind be in you, which was [is] also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made Himself of no reputation, and took upon Him the form of a servant [slave], and was made in the likeness of men"(Phil. 2:5-7).
Now here we learn a little more of what this is about. When it says “mind” it is the disposition of God Himself. Where it says “equal with God” it is the same amount or degree and so on.
“Being in the form of God…” is being inherently in the form of God. Inherently, that’s an interesting word, it means possessed at birth or the inborn, right. I thought now that is interesting, that's 'before' He became man, He was by birth - inborn.
Strong’s uses the word, He existed as a 'innate.' Existent as an innate birth, a right by birth. That is what it means, a right by or through birth. Jesus Christ was BORN. To which of the angels did He ever say, you are My son I have begotten you... as a little boy in a manger? He was His Son, 'from the beginning!' The whole idea of Jesus Christ, was to be a Son, from the beginning. Now it says.
Phi 2:6…thought it not robbery to be equal with God,
v. 7 but made Himself of no reputation, and took on Himself the form of a servant (slave), and was made in the likeness of man.
So this was an inborn right of birth, to have these powers. What did He do? Where it says, "He made Himself of no reputation," the KJ margin says, He emptied Himself of all His privileges. I mean He is so mighty and everything, I mean you’re not going to kill Him. He has got to reduce down, to something really small, compared to what He was. He voluntarily did that, “He took it on Himself,” you see. He was made low enough to kill. It says in Hebrews, “A little lower than the angels,” so they could kill Him. How was that accomplished? He emptied Himself of everything God had given to Him. I guess God could have taken it away, but He didn’t take it away, Christ gave it up.
Now here is a verse you might not think proves that Christ is the Creator.
[7] “For though there be that are called gods (Theos is plural), whether in heaven or on earth; as there are gods many, and lords many; But to us there is but ONE GOD, the Father, OF Whom are all things, and we in Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ BY Whom are all things, and we by Him" (I Cor. 8:5-6).
Everything, “all things” are out 'of ' God. The word "of" in this verse is ek ex and it means--origin, from, out of, like exist (to get out of, to exist). Here is the Concordant Translation "there is One God, the Father, OUT OF WHOM ALL IS." If "all things are out of God," then certainly that includes Jesus. Where is Jesus Christ 'from'? Is He some 'thing'? He is the grandest thing of all. “All things,” are ek ex from the Father. So where did Christ come from? It says “all things” are of or out of (ek ex) God. There is only one God, the Father, and we in Him. “And one Lord Jesus Christ BY Whom” that means through or the channel of. There it is!
Everything, all knowledge, the plan of the universe is out of God. But then it is channelled through Jesus Christ. Why? He’s the Spokesman, and the creator, and the Saviour, and the example to humanity. Because God can’t come down and face us, face to face. Christ in His glory, in the OT, you couldn’t face Him either, it would have blown you away. But He emptied Himself. Christ talked about "My Father, your Father; My God, your God." (John 20:17)
So everything there is, is out of God and then it is through or by Jesus Christ, that He channelled everything that there is.
[8] The
Prophets: "Searching what, or what manner of time, the Spirit of CHRIST
which was in them [the
prophets of old]"
(I Pet. 1:11). Some argue that this means "the spirit
of ANOINTING was on them, not that Jesus existed back in those days. Well let’s
read the next Scripture:
[9] The Fathers under Moses: "did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock WAS CHRIST" (I Cor. 10:4).
It was Christ who has followed them and spoken to them most times in the old Testament.
[10] Jesus does acknowledge that Mary was His mother and all, but He said here; "believe that I came out from God. "I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world" (John 16:27-28).
If He just existed the first time coming out from Mary, then He didn’t come out from God, He came out from Mary, you see. So if He came out from God, He had to exist before Mary, right. So He was before Mary.
"I came out from THEE" (John 17:08).
"I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but He SENT ME" (John 8:42).
"because God SENT His only begotten Son into the world the Father SENT the Son to be the Saviour of the world" (I John 3:8 & 14).
He didn’t send a spiritual sperm into Mary. He sent His Son!
1 John 4:14 “… the Father sent the Son to be the saviour of the world.”
[11] Where was Jesus before His human birth? "For I [Jesus] came down from heaven not to do Mine Own will, but the will of Him that sent Me" (John 6:38).
Jesus had a "will" before and after He "came down from heaven."
You know some of these verses I had just read over, then I think, ‘what did that say?’ “I came down From heaven,” You know He didn’t come down from the manger or something. It says “I came down from heaven,” But see you can’t come down from heaven, unless you were up there.
When we say, ‘up in heaven,’ we just mean ‘high’ as a realm. Not in the direction, up mean high, you know lift up your head up on high. It doesn’t literally mean to look up in the sky, but to a higher level of spirituality. So Christ couldn’t have come down from heaven, unless He was there.
[12] "And now, O Father, glorify You Me with Your Own Self with the glory which I had with Thee BEFORE THE WORLD WAS" (John 17:5).
That certainly puts Him before Mary.
[13] How long has the Father loved the Son? "for You loved Me BEFORE the foundation of the world" (John 17:24). Then Jesus had to EXIST before the foundation of the world.
[14] "GOD has spoken unto us by His Son by Whom also He made the worlds [Gk: aions/ages]" (Heb. 1:1-2).
The Greek word there is aions, but the aions began with the physical creation. So again He was there and He did it.
[15] God calls His Son "God." "But unto the Son He says, Thy throne O GOD is for ever and ever [eon of the eon] (Heb. 1:08). This is God speaking, not that we are hearing His voice, it’s just that this is what God is relating to us. It’s not in a actual voice, because nobody has ever heard His voice, but through inspiration, this is what He says. "Your throne, O God,” (Heb. 1:08)
I get a kick out of Jehovah Witness, they say, no, that is ‘God is Thy throne.’ That‘s the way it should be translated and not “Thy throne O God.” They say, God is your throne Jesus or God to you Jesus, is like a throne. No. Farther more, it is a quotation out of the OT. It is the same way there, Psalms 45:6 “Your throne, O God.” God calls His Son, God.
You don’t have to be eternal to be God. You just have to be like God, in all that God is able to do. God can create, God can destroy, God has all power at His disposal. When He gives that to somebody, that somebody is God. When you can do all that God can do, you’re God.
Jesus Christ said to His disciples, the last couple of verses in Matt. 28, remember He said “all power in heaven and earth is given unto Me.” This is the way God is. God wants to give us everything that He is.
1Cor 15:28 “…that God may be all in all.” This isn’t anything that He holds in reserve. He will always be our Father, we will never be His father. Jesus Christ will always be subservient to the Father. It says all things are given into His hands, in that He is over all things. It says the Father, but the Father is not given unto Him, you know. But all things are ’under’ Him. It’s a good thing we have that, some people would be just too dumb to understand. But no, the Father is not under Christ.
"The glorious appearing [the Father is not appearing] of the great GOD and our Saviour Jesus Christ" (Titus 2:13).
It says, “appearing” the Father is not appearing. Why? He’s invisible and nobody has ever seen Him. He’s Christ and He’s what? “the great God and saviour.”
"Now to HIM [Jesus] present you faultless before the presence of HIS glory [God] To the only wise GOD our Saviour, be glory and majesty, dominion and power, both now and ever(eon)" (Jude 24-25).
"And Thomas answered and said unto Him, my Lord and my GOD." (John 20:28).
Now that is in all of the manuscripts, it’s not a wrong translation. Thomas called Jesus Christ “my Lord and my GOD."
[16] John the Baptist said that Jesus was "before me" (John 1:15), yet John was 6 month older than Jesus (Luke 1:57). You read things like that and you think, ‘well what does that mean?’ What did he mean He (Jesus) was before me (John). To understand that you turn to Luke 1:36 “And behold, Elisabeth thy kinswoman (cousin), she also hath conceived a son (John) in her old age; and this is the sixth month with her…” John was six months older than Jesus, but John said Jesus was ‘before’ Me. How was He before him? If John was six months older than Jesus and Jesus was before Him, He had to exist in some other form, before He was Jesus Christ the man, see. Now sometimes you wouldn’t put these scriptures together, but when you do, there it is.
[17] "For then must He often have suffered since the foundation of the world?" (Heb. 9:26).
Jesus clearly existed back then.
[18] This one might blow you away. How could God give birth, to a God? I guess you would say ‘a’ God, He is His Son, ‘a’ Son, ‘a’ God. How do you give birth to a God?
John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten SON, who is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared Him.
Now we have always heard, that we know nobody has ever seen God the Father, heard His voice, seen His shape ever. The only begotten Son, He is the One who reveals who the Father is, right. The Concordant translates that “unfolds Him.” You know, unfolds - unravels who and what the Father is to humanity. Because the first part said, nobody has ever seen God. But here is the point I want to draw attention to, “the only Begotten Son,” Son is not in some manuscripts. The Greek "Theos" [God] is in the manuscripts.
Let me give you John 1:18 the Concordant version and some others.
a. "God no one has ever seen. The only-begotten GOD Who is in the bosom of the Father, He unfolds Him" (Concordant Literal Version)
b. "No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, Who is at the Father’s side, has made Him known" (New International Version).
c. "the only begotten Son, Who is God and close to the Father’s heart" (The New Testament in the Language of Today by William Beck)
d. "No one has ever seen God. It is God the only Son Who is close to the Father’s heart" (New Revised Standard Version).
e. "No one has seen God at any time: An Only-Begotten God, The One existing in the bosom of the Father, He has interpreted Him" (Rotherham’s Emphasized Bible). Etc.
How about that??? The only begotten God, Jesus Christ the only begotten God, Well He’s the firstfruit, right. When you read the Bible you read, “In the beginning,” but the word should be, “In beginning,” or “A beginning,” and not ‘the,’ it’s not there. “In a beginning, God - Elohim created the heavens and the earth.” Now Jesus Christ is the Firstfruit.
We just read, Heb. 1:5 “For to which of the angels said He at any time, you art My Son, This day have I begotten you?” And we read over in Vs.9 “Therefore God, thy God, hath anointed thee With the oil of gladness above thy FELLOWS.”
But we are going to be His brothers. We have to be begotten too. Jesus Christ is the Firstfruit of them that slept (1 Cor. 15:20), the Firstfruit. James says we are a kind of Firstfruits (James 1:18). In Rev. 14, we read that the 144,000 are the Firstfruits. Do you know what it actually says in the Hebrew, in
[9] The Fathers under Moses: "did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock WAS CHRIST" (I Cor. 10:4).
It was Christ who has followed them and spoken to them most times in the old Testament.
[10] Jesus does acknowledge that Mary was His mother and all, but He said here; "believe that I came out from God. "I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world" (John 16:27-28).
If He just existed the first time coming out from Mary, then He didn’t come out from God, He came out from Mary, you see. So if He came out from God, He had to exist before Mary, right. So He was before Mary.
"I came out from THEE" (John 17:08).
"I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but He SENT ME" (John 8:42).
"because God SENT His only begotten Son into the world the Father SENT the Son to be the Saviour of the world" (I John 3:8 & 14).
He didn’t send a spiritual sperm into Mary. He sent His Son!
1 John 4:14 “… the Father sent the Son to be the saviour of the world.”
[11] Where was Jesus before His human birth? "For I [Jesus] came down from heaven not to do Mine Own will, but the will of Him that sent Me" (John 6:38).
Jesus had a "will" before and after He "came down from heaven."
You know some of these verses I had just read over, then I think, ‘what did that say?’ “I came down From heaven,” You know He didn’t come down from the manger or something. It says “I came down from heaven,” But see you can’t come down from heaven, unless you were up there.
When we say, ‘up in heaven,’ we just mean ‘high’ as a realm. Not in the direction, up mean high, you know lift up your head up on high. It doesn’t literally mean to look up in the sky, but to a higher level of spirituality. So Christ couldn’t have come down from heaven, unless He was there.
[12] "And now, O Father, glorify You Me with Your Own Self with the glory which I had with Thee BEFORE THE WORLD WAS" (John 17:5).
That certainly puts Him before Mary.
[13] How long has the Father loved the Son? "for You loved Me BEFORE the foundation of the world" (John 17:24). Then Jesus had to EXIST before the foundation of the world.
[14] "GOD has spoken unto us by His Son by Whom also He made the worlds [Gk: aions/ages]" (Heb. 1:1-2).
The Greek word there is aions, but the aions began with the physical creation. So again He was there and He did it.
[15] God calls His Son "God." "But unto the Son He says, Thy throne O GOD is for ever and ever [eon of the eon] (Heb. 1:08). This is God speaking, not that we are hearing His voice, it’s just that this is what God is relating to us. It’s not in a actual voice, because nobody has ever heard His voice, but through inspiration, this is what He says. "Your throne, O God,” (Heb. 1:08)
I get a kick out of Jehovah Witness, they say, no, that is ‘God is Thy throne.’ That‘s the way it should be translated and not “Thy throne O God.” They say, God is your throne Jesus or God to you Jesus, is like a throne. No. Farther more, it is a quotation out of the OT. It is the same way there, Psalms 45:6 “Your throne, O God.” God calls His Son, God.
You don’t have to be eternal to be God. You just have to be like God, in all that God is able to do. God can create, God can destroy, God has all power at His disposal. When He gives that to somebody, that somebody is God. When you can do all that God can do, you’re God.
Jesus Christ said to His disciples, the last couple of verses in Matt. 28, remember He said “all power in heaven and earth is given unto Me.” This is the way God is. God wants to give us everything that He is.
1Cor 15:28 “…that God may be all in all.” This isn’t anything that He holds in reserve. He will always be our Father, we will never be His father. Jesus Christ will always be subservient to the Father. It says all things are given into His hands, in that He is over all things. It says the Father, but the Father is not given unto Him, you know. But all things are ’under’ Him. It’s a good thing we have that, some people would be just too dumb to understand. But no, the Father is not under Christ.
"The glorious appearing [the Father is not appearing] of the great GOD and our Saviour Jesus Christ" (Titus 2:13).
It says, “appearing” the Father is not appearing. Why? He’s invisible and nobody has ever seen Him. He’s Christ and He’s what? “the great God and saviour.”
"Now to HIM [Jesus] present you faultless before the presence of HIS glory [God] To the only wise GOD our Saviour, be glory and majesty, dominion and power, both now and ever(eon)" (Jude 24-25).
"And Thomas answered and said unto Him, my Lord and my GOD." (John 20:28).
Now that is in all of the manuscripts, it’s not a wrong translation. Thomas called Jesus Christ “my Lord and my GOD."
[16] John the Baptist said that Jesus was "before me" (John 1:15), yet John was 6 month older than Jesus (Luke 1:57). You read things like that and you think, ‘well what does that mean?’ What did he mean He (Jesus) was before me (John). To understand that you turn to Luke 1:36 “And behold, Elisabeth thy kinswoman (cousin), she also hath conceived a son (John) in her old age; and this is the sixth month with her…” John was six months older than Jesus, but John said Jesus was ‘before’ Me. How was He before him? If John was six months older than Jesus and Jesus was before Him, He had to exist in some other form, before He was Jesus Christ the man, see. Now sometimes you wouldn’t put these scriptures together, but when you do, there it is.
[17] "For then must He often have suffered since the foundation of the world?" (Heb. 9:26).
Jesus clearly existed back then.
[18] This one might blow you away. How could God give birth, to a God? I guess you would say ‘a’ God, He is His Son, ‘a’ Son, ‘a’ God. How do you give birth to a God?
John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten SON, who is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared Him.
Now we have always heard, that we know nobody has ever seen God the Father, heard His voice, seen His shape ever. The only begotten Son, He is the One who reveals who the Father is, right. The Concordant translates that “unfolds Him.” You know, unfolds - unravels who and what the Father is to humanity. Because the first part said, nobody has ever seen God. But here is the point I want to draw attention to, “the only Begotten Son,” Son is not in some manuscripts. The Greek "Theos" [God] is in the manuscripts.
Let me give you John 1:18 the Concordant version and some others.
a. "God no one has ever seen. The only-begotten GOD Who is in the bosom of the Father, He unfolds Him" (Concordant Literal Version)
b. "No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, Who is at the Father’s side, has made Him known" (New International Version).
c. "the only begotten Son, Who is God and close to the Father’s heart" (The New Testament in the Language of Today by William Beck)
d. "No one has ever seen God. It is God the only Son Who is close to the Father’s heart" (New Revised Standard Version).
e. "No one has seen God at any time: An Only-Begotten God, The One existing in the bosom of the Father, He has interpreted Him" (Rotherham’s Emphasized Bible). Etc.
How about that??? The only begotten God, Jesus Christ the only begotten God, Well He’s the firstfruit, right. When you read the Bible you read, “In the beginning,” but the word should be, “In beginning,” or “A beginning,” and not ‘the,’ it’s not there. “In a beginning, God - Elohim created the heavens and the earth.” Now Jesus Christ is the Firstfruit.
We just read, Heb. 1:5 “For to which of the angels said He at any time, you art My Son, This day have I begotten you?” And we read over in Vs.9 “Therefore God, thy God, hath anointed thee With the oil of gladness above thy FELLOWS.”
But we are going to be His brothers. We have to be begotten too. Jesus Christ is the Firstfruit of them that slept (1 Cor. 15:20), the Firstfruit. James says we are a kind of Firstfruits (James 1:18). In Rev. 14, we read that the 144,000 are the Firstfruits. Do you know what it actually says in the Hebrew, in
Genesis 1:1 “In
Firstfruit God created the heaven and earth.”
Who is the Firstfruit? Jesus Christ!
“In Firstfruit, God created the heaven and the earth.”
“In Jesus Christ, God created the heaven and earth.”
Who is the Firstfruit? Jesus Christ!
“In Firstfruit, God created the heaven and the earth.”
“In Jesus Christ, God created the heaven and earth.”
ONE GOD!
If Jesus is God and the Father is God and we read in the Bible about God, how do we know who it is? How do we know? So we need to clarify some of these things. Here is an interesting verse.
Psalms 110:1 The Lord says to my lord: "Sit at my right hand, till I make your enemies your footstool."
Matt 22:44 The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou on My right hand, Till I put thine enemies underneath Thy feet?
Christ ask the Pharisees, ‘who is the Christ or whose Son is He‘? He didn’t say He was the Christ, like one time when He ask them, ‘who do you say the Son of man is.’ He is just asking about the Christ and not saying He is the Christ, He’s saying whoever He is when He comes. The Christ, whose Son is He? They all said, He’s the Son of David. So then He said to them, well how did David say, “the Lord says to my lord, sit at My right hand, till I make your enemies your footstool."
If the Messiah, the Christ, is to be the son of David, how does David call Him Lord? Think about this scripture for a while, that will get your head spinning. What in the world does it mean? What is He saying? Can anybody explain that? The Christ, who’s Son is He? They said, He’s the Son of David, they got that from some of the prophesies, He is the Son of David.
Alright David was inspired to write, “The Lord says to my lord: Sit at my right hand, till I make your enemies your footstool." If Christ is the Son of David, how is it that David calls Him Lord? That’s the point where it says, from that day forward they didn’t dare question Him anymore. But what is the answer?
Now we have this in the Greek, it‘s kurios and kurios? “The Lord( Kurios) said unto My Lord(Kurios).” You can’t learn who the Lord is, because it’s the same Greek word. But in the OT in Psalms 110:1, the Lord is Jehovah or rather Yehwah. You know that Yahweh is more correct, but Jehovah is so much easier to say.
So in the OT it’s “the Lord( Jehovah) said unto My Lord (Adon).” But Christ said that Kurios is My Kurios. But in the Hebrew it’s different, it’s Jehovah said to Adon. I’ve got a rather lengthy explanation for all this and I don’t want to take the time to go through it all.
So from this we learn that there are any number of things stated in the OT, that when you bring them to the NT, they apply to different people. If you look at all the prophecies concerning Jesus Christ, they are not talking about Jesus Christ, they are talking about some person in the OT, as applying to Christ through fulfilment.
So David is writing the Psalms and David is saying, “The Lord says to my lord…" we know who the Lord is, just look at the Greek word, it’s Jehovah. We know that the second ‘My Lord’ is Adon. Adon means like my lord or my master, owner or whatever. So we got Jehovah, so who is Adon?
See the church teaches this is God the Father, saying of Jesus Christ. No, it can’t be God the Father, because it’s Jehovah and Jehovah is Jesus. He is talking down to somebody. So this is a higher authority talking down to somebody, who is Adon, which is used a lot for just a physical human masters. This is obviously David. Jehovah is saying this of David. We would say, ‘yea but David is talking, so how could he be saying that?’ Well, they speak in the third person all the time. You’ll find that in the titles of some of the songs all the time. One is the song of Solomon, and Solomon is speaking and he talks about the son of David, that’s him. He says the son of David, that’s me. Well, ‘why are you calling yourself the son of David?’ He’s just using the third person, they do that all the time.
So you’ve got, Jehovah said to my Adon, in the NT that becomes, God said to My Son Jesus. Because now we have who fulfilled this. I mean David did put his foot on a lot of his enemies, but not all. When he died he still had enemies. That’s why he told his son to kill them and make it bloody.
It is Jesus Christ who is going to have all enemies put under His feet. You read that in Hebrews 2:8 and again in Corinthians 15. How long does Christ rule? Until He what?
1Cor 15:25 for it is right for Him to reign until He has PUTS ALL THE ENEMIES UNDER HIS FEET.
v. 26 The last enemy made to cease is death.
So don’t be fooled by these words. I mean people might try to trip you up and say, ‘oh you don’t know what you are talking about.’ You will have all the notes, but you will have to study them a little bit.
Where, Jehovah said to My Adon, in the NT it’s, God saying to My Son. That is how this is fulfilled. We can learn how this works out in fulfilment in Matt 1:1, where it plainly says that Jesus Christ is the Son of David.
Luke 1:32 He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Highest; and the Lord God will give Him the throne of His father David.
God says He will give unto Jesus the throne of His father David. So there is a scriptural reference that the throne of David really belongs to Jesus Christ. He is both the Lord and the Son. Of course the Pharisees didn’t know that and couldn’t figure it out. Christ tripped them up on it and didn’t tell them the answer.
Here’s an interesting thing in Genesis 1:1 “In the beginning Elohim created the heavens and the earth.” That can be plural because it says, Elohim, “let ‘Us’ make man in ‘Our’ image.” It’s a plural pronoun, right? What’s interesting is you come down to chapter 2 and it says;
Gen 2:4 These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that Jehovah/Elohim made earth and heaven.
Jehovah? Did they just slip that in there? Now in Genesis 1:1, Elohim created the heaven and the earth. In chapter 2, Jehovah/Elohim. So we have Elohim in chapter 1, now we have Jehovah/Elohim.
We have God created. We always think of God as being the Father, always God and Jesus Christ. But here in the OT when God spoke to Moses, it wasn’t God the Father. Because He spoke to him and no man has ever heard the Father and we already showed 18 Vrs., that proves Christ existed before humans existed.
If Jesus is God and the Father is God and we read in the Bible about God, how do we know who it is? How do we know? So we need to clarify some of these things. Here is an interesting verse.
Psalms 110:1 The Lord says to my lord: "Sit at my right hand, till I make your enemies your footstool."
Matt 22:44 The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou on My right hand, Till I put thine enemies underneath Thy feet?
Christ ask the Pharisees, ‘who is the Christ or whose Son is He‘? He didn’t say He was the Christ, like one time when He ask them, ‘who do you say the Son of man is.’ He is just asking about the Christ and not saying He is the Christ, He’s saying whoever He is when He comes. The Christ, whose Son is He? They all said, He’s the Son of David. So then He said to them, well how did David say, “the Lord says to my lord, sit at My right hand, till I make your enemies your footstool."
If the Messiah, the Christ, is to be the son of David, how does David call Him Lord? Think about this scripture for a while, that will get your head spinning. What in the world does it mean? What is He saying? Can anybody explain that? The Christ, who’s Son is He? They said, He’s the Son of David, they got that from some of the prophesies, He is the Son of David.
Alright David was inspired to write, “The Lord says to my lord: Sit at my right hand, till I make your enemies your footstool." If Christ is the Son of David, how is it that David calls Him Lord? That’s the point where it says, from that day forward they didn’t dare question Him anymore. But what is the answer?
Now we have this in the Greek, it‘s kurios and kurios? “The Lord( Kurios) said unto My Lord(Kurios).” You can’t learn who the Lord is, because it’s the same Greek word. But in the OT in Psalms 110:1, the Lord is Jehovah or rather Yehwah. You know that Yahweh is more correct, but Jehovah is so much easier to say.
So in the OT it’s “the Lord( Jehovah) said unto My Lord (Adon).” But Christ said that Kurios is My Kurios. But in the Hebrew it’s different, it’s Jehovah said to Adon. I’ve got a rather lengthy explanation for all this and I don’t want to take the time to go through it all.
So from this we learn that there are any number of things stated in the OT, that when you bring them to the NT, they apply to different people. If you look at all the prophecies concerning Jesus Christ, they are not talking about Jesus Christ, they are talking about some person in the OT, as applying to Christ through fulfilment.
So David is writing the Psalms and David is saying, “The Lord says to my lord…" we know who the Lord is, just look at the Greek word, it’s Jehovah. We know that the second ‘My Lord’ is Adon. Adon means like my lord or my master, owner or whatever. So we got Jehovah, so who is Adon?
See the church teaches this is God the Father, saying of Jesus Christ. No, it can’t be God the Father, because it’s Jehovah and Jehovah is Jesus. He is talking down to somebody. So this is a higher authority talking down to somebody, who is Adon, which is used a lot for just a physical human masters. This is obviously David. Jehovah is saying this of David. We would say, ‘yea but David is talking, so how could he be saying that?’ Well, they speak in the third person all the time. You’ll find that in the titles of some of the songs all the time. One is the song of Solomon, and Solomon is speaking and he talks about the son of David, that’s him. He says the son of David, that’s me. Well, ‘why are you calling yourself the son of David?’ He’s just using the third person, they do that all the time.
So you’ve got, Jehovah said to my Adon, in the NT that becomes, God said to My Son Jesus. Because now we have who fulfilled this. I mean David did put his foot on a lot of his enemies, but not all. When he died he still had enemies. That’s why he told his son to kill them and make it bloody.
It is Jesus Christ who is going to have all enemies put under His feet. You read that in Hebrews 2:8 and again in Corinthians 15. How long does Christ rule? Until He what?
1Cor 15:25 for it is right for Him to reign until He has PUTS ALL THE ENEMIES UNDER HIS FEET.
v. 26 The last enemy made to cease is death.
So don’t be fooled by these words. I mean people might try to trip you up and say, ‘oh you don’t know what you are talking about.’ You will have all the notes, but you will have to study them a little bit.
Where, Jehovah said to My Adon, in the NT it’s, God saying to My Son. That is how this is fulfilled. We can learn how this works out in fulfilment in Matt 1:1, where it plainly says that Jesus Christ is the Son of David.
Luke 1:32 He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Highest; and the Lord God will give Him the throne of His father David.
God says He will give unto Jesus the throne of His father David. So there is a scriptural reference that the throne of David really belongs to Jesus Christ. He is both the Lord and the Son. Of course the Pharisees didn’t know that and couldn’t figure it out. Christ tripped them up on it and didn’t tell them the answer.
Here’s an interesting thing in Genesis 1:1 “In the beginning Elohim created the heavens and the earth.” That can be plural because it says, Elohim, “let ‘Us’ make man in ‘Our’ image.” It’s a plural pronoun, right? What’s interesting is you come down to chapter 2 and it says;
Gen 2:4 These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that Jehovah/Elohim made earth and heaven.
Jehovah? Did they just slip that in there? Now in Genesis 1:1, Elohim created the heaven and the earth. In chapter 2, Jehovah/Elohim. So we have Elohim in chapter 1, now we have Jehovah/Elohim.
We have God created. We always think of God as being the Father, always God and Jesus Christ. But here in the OT when God spoke to Moses, it wasn’t God the Father. Because He spoke to him and no man has ever heard the Father and we already showed 18 Vrs., that proves Christ existed before humans existed.
He was at the beginning. He is the beginning.
He is the Alpha, He is the beginning of the creation of God. He is the
Firstfruit.
So when it says God - Elohim, who is it talking about? It’s the ‘We’ and the ‘Us.’ Elohim is the ‘We’ and the ‘Us.’ So it’s BOTH!
What have we learned in 1 Cor. 8:6? All is out of ek ex - out of God, through Jesus. Keep it all together, just go over it and cross reference your Bible. Make a list of a couple of scriptures, next to the ones you are real familiar with, so you will remember those. So you will start to remember some of this stuff. Remember what we learned in the first chapter of Hebrews? as we go over this more and more it will start to click with you.
Heb. 1:1 God who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers.
What, there’s another one. God spoke unto our fathers? Who is this God here? This is Theos, this is the God the Father, this is not Jesus Christ. In the NT Theos is God the Father, except where it says our God (Theos) and saviour, then it’s talking about Jesus Christ. But this God here is God the Father. He spoke unto our fathers? Who spoke unto our fathers? Jesus Christ! Is this a contradiction? No. The speaking came out of God, through the Son, because He’s the Spokesman.
You got to get it out of your head that God is the name of Jesus’ Father. God is not the name of Jesus’ Father. God is a title that is used even by the pagans. Baalim was a theos, Zeus was a theos, all these pagan gods were theos’ and elohims and els and adonay too.
But usually when it talks about God as Lord, it’s Adonay, not Adon. But you see the Lord God and that shouldn’t be really Lord. Because it’s just confusing, because sometimes you have ‘the Lord God’ or it will say ‘my God is Lord,’ in psalms. It’s Jehovah (Adon), but they didn’t want to say ’the Lord is Lord,’ So they changed it to God, no, but it should be Jehovah Adonay. But since they always translate Jehovah to Lord, it would have come out Lord Lord and they didn’t think that sounded right. There is just no consistency or not very good consistencies sometimes in the KJ. That’s where Concordant is very good. The Concordant does not translate it, they call it Elohim. They leave it right there in the Hebrew, Elohim. But notice this;
Heb. 1:3 who being the brightness of His glory (speaking of Jesus Christ) and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by the word of His power, when He had by Himself purged our sins, sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high,
Okay back to Verse 2.
Heb. 1:2 has in these last days spoken to us by His Son(God), whom He has appointed heir of all things, by whom also He (who? God) made the worlds;
Who is the “by whom?” Jesus Christ. But who did it? God. How? Through Christ, So who did it? They both did it, that’s why it is Elohim. “In the beginning Elohim…” God the Father and His Son, Jesus Christ, created the universe. It was out of God, through His Son. Both. They are both the One God. Well why does it introduce, here in chapter 2, that the heaven and the earth was created by Jehovah/Elohim? Because it’s letting us know who the Son is, for those who have eyes to see and ears to hear and all that.
So Jesus Christ is being introduced to us here. Why? Because He’s going to start talking. To who? To Adam and then to Eve, you see. He’s the spokesman and for the next 50 verses or whatever and maybe many more than that, it’s always the Lord God or Jehovah/Elohim.
So think of it this way, God is a title and it has a meaning. But don’t look it up, because you would go nuts, if you try to look up the ethnology of the word God on Google or whatever.
It’s a title. That’s why Paul said, “as there are gods many, and lords many…” (1 Cor 8:5) in the world and they knew what he was talking about. He said, “for us there is but one God…” And since Christ came to tell us who He is, we know who it is, it’s the Father! Out of whom, out of/ek ex, whom is all things.
Jesus Christ is a thing. He is the Son of God, the very image of Him. Well if He is something, where did He come from? Out of GOD! Where did everything else come from? Through Christ! Jesus is Jehovah. Jehovah what? Jehovah/Elohim! Who is His Father? His Father, is the Father, Elohim! Fair enough.
So whatever you read about God in the OT, virtually always, it could be a reference slightly different, but mostly not. In the NT we have God and it’s speaking of the Father. Paul introduces every book he has written with that salutation.
Rom 7:25 I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord!
2Cor 1:2 Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
And of course if you got a trinity, then Paul really messed up.
1Cor 1:1 Paul, called to be an apostle of Jesus Christ through the will of God…
So when it says God - Elohim, who is it talking about? It’s the ‘We’ and the ‘Us.’ Elohim is the ‘We’ and the ‘Us.’ So it’s BOTH!
What have we learned in 1 Cor. 8:6? All is out of ek ex - out of God, through Jesus. Keep it all together, just go over it and cross reference your Bible. Make a list of a couple of scriptures, next to the ones you are real familiar with, so you will remember those. So you will start to remember some of this stuff. Remember what we learned in the first chapter of Hebrews? as we go over this more and more it will start to click with you.
Heb. 1:1 God who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers.
What, there’s another one. God spoke unto our fathers? Who is this God here? This is Theos, this is the God the Father, this is not Jesus Christ. In the NT Theos is God the Father, except where it says our God (Theos) and saviour, then it’s talking about Jesus Christ. But this God here is God the Father. He spoke unto our fathers? Who spoke unto our fathers? Jesus Christ! Is this a contradiction? No. The speaking came out of God, through the Son, because He’s the Spokesman.
You got to get it out of your head that God is the name of Jesus’ Father. God is not the name of Jesus’ Father. God is a title that is used even by the pagans. Baalim was a theos, Zeus was a theos, all these pagan gods were theos’ and elohims and els and adonay too.
But usually when it talks about God as Lord, it’s Adonay, not Adon. But you see the Lord God and that shouldn’t be really Lord. Because it’s just confusing, because sometimes you have ‘the Lord God’ or it will say ‘my God is Lord,’ in psalms. It’s Jehovah (Adon), but they didn’t want to say ’the Lord is Lord,’ So they changed it to God, no, but it should be Jehovah Adonay. But since they always translate Jehovah to Lord, it would have come out Lord Lord and they didn’t think that sounded right. There is just no consistency or not very good consistencies sometimes in the KJ. That’s where Concordant is very good. The Concordant does not translate it, they call it Elohim. They leave it right there in the Hebrew, Elohim. But notice this;
Heb. 1:3 who being the brightness of His glory (speaking of Jesus Christ) and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by the word of His power, when He had by Himself purged our sins, sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high,
Okay back to Verse 2.
Heb. 1:2 has in these last days spoken to us by His Son(God), whom He has appointed heir of all things, by whom also He (who? God) made the worlds;
Who is the “by whom?” Jesus Christ. But who did it? God. How? Through Christ, So who did it? They both did it, that’s why it is Elohim. “In the beginning Elohim…” God the Father and His Son, Jesus Christ, created the universe. It was out of God, through His Son. Both. They are both the One God. Well why does it introduce, here in chapter 2, that the heaven and the earth was created by Jehovah/Elohim? Because it’s letting us know who the Son is, for those who have eyes to see and ears to hear and all that.
So Jesus Christ is being introduced to us here. Why? Because He’s going to start talking. To who? To Adam and then to Eve, you see. He’s the spokesman and for the next 50 verses or whatever and maybe many more than that, it’s always the Lord God or Jehovah/Elohim.
So think of it this way, God is a title and it has a meaning. But don’t look it up, because you would go nuts, if you try to look up the ethnology of the word God on Google or whatever.
It’s a title. That’s why Paul said, “as there are gods many, and lords many…” (1 Cor 8:5) in the world and they knew what he was talking about. He said, “for us there is but one God…” And since Christ came to tell us who He is, we know who it is, it’s the Father! Out of whom, out of/ek ex, whom is all things.
Jesus Christ is a thing. He is the Son of God, the very image of Him. Well if He is something, where did He come from? Out of GOD! Where did everything else come from? Through Christ! Jesus is Jehovah. Jehovah what? Jehovah/Elohim! Who is His Father? His Father, is the Father, Elohim! Fair enough.
So whatever you read about God in the OT, virtually always, it could be a reference slightly different, but mostly not. In the NT we have God and it’s speaking of the Father. Paul introduces every book he has written with that salutation.
Rom 7:25 I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord!
2Cor 1:2 Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
And of course if you got a trinity, then Paul really messed up.
1Cor 1:1 Paul, called to be an apostle of Jesus Christ through the will of God…
It didn’t say Apostle Paul …… because apostle is not a title pale face!
Rom 1:7 …Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
The Holy Spirit is not there. If the Holy Spirit is a person, a personality of a triune Godhead or divinity and Paul has 13 books, but never once acknowledges the Holy Spirit, something is wrong with Paul. 1 Corinthians, 2 Corinthians, Galatians, Ephesians… etc., any book you open up, there is just those two.
Eph. 1:3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ…
Phil. 1:2 Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
Gal 1:3 Grace to you and peace from God the Father, and our Lord Jesus Christ,
There is no Holy Spirit. Not that the Holy Spirit is nothing or of no consequence, it’s just not a person. Jesus Christ and God the Father ARE the Holy Spirit! Jesus Christ is that Spirit!
John 16:7 … I will send him (the Comforter) to you. v. 15 … He shall take of Mine, and shall show it unto you.
What is He going to take of Christ? His Spirit. Where did Christ get that Spirit? From God the Father. But He is going to take of Christ, because it’s going to be the personality of Christ, see.
Paul didn’t say, I’m crucified with God, nevertheless I live, yet not I, but the FATHER lives in me. No, it’s, “I have been crucified with CHRIST, nevertheless I live; yet not I, but CHRIST lives in me.” (Gal 2:20) But see it’s the personality of Christ, that is the spirit that lives in us and that spirit comes from God. So we can call it God’s Holy Spirit, even though it’s channelled through Christ. Jehovah /Elohim, God the Father (Elohim), you know.
[Someone says; Isa 9:6 For to us a Child is born, to us a Son is given; and the government shall be on His shoulder; and His name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.]
Some will say wait a minute, “The everlasting Father?” Christ (Jehovah) says, He was a Father to Israel. He’s the eonian God to Israel.
Now we know in the garden, Christ... though Jehovah is doing the talking, because no man has ever heard God the Father. So the Lord God (Jehovah/Elohim) said unto the woman, “and the Lord God said…” Why did He say ‘said’? Because He’s the spokesman, He’s the Word. He’s the Word of who? Elohim, and He is Jehovah/Elohim and His Father is Elohim. There is only one Elohim. So it’s the Lord God - Jehovah/Elohim.
When we come to the NT then we read about God. Jesus Christ said, they ask Him what is the greatest commandment, He said “You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind” (Matt 22:37). The Greek says, you shall love the Kurios your Theos with all your heart and so on.
Kurios/Theos… who was He talking about? The Father. He’s quoting the OT, that comes out of Deuteronomy, where Jehovah Himself says, “You shall love the Lord your God” (Deut. 6:5). Not Kurios/Theos, but Jehovah/Elohim.
Well who are we to worship with all our heart? Jehovah/Elohim or Kurios/Theos of the NT, who we know is the Father. But Jehovah/Elohim (where it’s quoted from the OT), is Jesus Christ. Who is it talking about? It’s always talking about BOTH. ALWAYS!
Even though we give Jesus the designation Jehovah/Elohim, it still includes the Father. Why? Because there is only ONE Elohim! He is the Jehovah, one God - there is the Father, one God and together they are the one God. You just have to believe the scriptures.
John 10:30 I and My Father are one.
One what? One God and it’s understood, We are one... one God. We two, are one. Whenever two are of the same mind and spirit, they are considered one.
"There is ONE GOD" (I Cor.8:5); "God is SPIRIT" (John 6:24);
"by ONE SPIRIT baptized into one body" (I Co. 12:13);
"But he that is joined unto the Lord IS ONE SPIRIT" (I Cor. 6:17); "I and My Father are ONE" (John 10:30)
"There is ONE BODY, and ONE SPIRIT, even as ye are called in ONE HOPE, of your calling; ONE LORD, ONE FAITH, ONE BAPTISM, ONE GOD AND FATHER OF ALL, Who is ABOVE ALL, and THROUGH ALL, and IN YOU ALL" (Eph. 4:4-6).
HENCE: WHAT WE KNOW ABOUT JESUS, WE KNOW ABOUT HIS FATHER
Jesus spoke the words of His Father and did the works of His Father (John 14:10 & 14:24 & 5:19).
Jesus Christ "declares the FATHER" (John 1:18). And reveals the Father to whomever the Son desires (Matt. 11:27). Jesus was revealing the Father to the disciples His whole ministry, but Phillip missed is: (John 14:9-11). Remember when Jesus said, "Before Abraham was, I AM"? (John 8:58). He was also revealing HIMSELF as the God of the Old Testament.
Jesus Christ IS THE GOD OF THE OLD TESTAMENT!
He is THE GOD OF THE BIBLE!
Jesus Christ is the ONLY REVELATION OF GOD THAT WE HAVE.
Even the Holy Spirit we all have comes from God THROUGH Jesus Christ.
Jesus is that Comforter, that Spirit.
Our Saviour and our Brother.
The Son of God.
PART 2
SOLVING
THE ENIGMA OF GOD
What is the Name of the Father and His Son?
What is the Name of the Father and His Son?
Mystery of mysteries: Is "Jesus"
the name of our Lord and Saviour or is Jesus, as many contend, a spurious
counterfeit name? And what is the name of our Lord's Father? Surely we should
know the correct name for our Saviour. And surely we should know the name of
His Father. But don't you know the name Jesus has been almost demonized in
recent years by professed Christians. They insist that the name Jesus is not
the proper name for our Lord. And the Jehovah's Witnesses and others
passionately teach that the Father's Name has actually been removed dozens of
times in the New Testament Greek manuscripts. Is any of this true? Prepare to
be shocked by the Scriptural truth of this subject.
For nearly 8 years I have received admonitions from numerous
of my readers and detractors instructing me to start using the proper and
correct names for Jesus and His Father. They think the translators have
substituted the Father's name in the New Testament for something else. And they
say the name Jesus is a pagan name derived from the Greek god Zeus-G-zeus.
ABSURD
ALLEGATIONS
Jehovah Witnesses and countless others claim that the
references to God the Father in the New Testament has been changed from
"Jehovah" to either "Lord" or
"God," so as to deceive the masses regarding this proper name for
God. What utter nonsense.
Back in the days of the apostles, thousands of copies of
their gospels and epistles were sent throughout the Mid-East. And today we
still have six to seven thousand copies of those copies. And those letters were
duplicated and sent out immediately after they were written. They were
distributed to church after church and congregation after congregation and
family after family. How many copies were sent through the Roman world only God
knows.
Follow this: Thousands of copies of the Apostle's letters
were send to thousands of people, families, and church congregations during
those early years. And many of those copies of copies have come down to us
today. How then, is it even in the realm of possibility that someone or an
entire army of people could go out and locate all of those thousands of Greek
epistles; then confiscate them; then fraudulently erase 200 references to
Jehovah and insert either "God" or
"Lord" in their place; and then return them again to their
rightful owners? Are they serious?
No, that never happened. The Holy Spirit of God did not
inspire all of the New Testament writers to use the Hebrew name YHWH transliterated to "Jehovah,"
hundreds of times in their gospels and epistles. On the other hand, let's ask
ourselves a serious question: If Jesus said He came to exalt, honour, and
manifest His Father's Name, wouldn't there have to be at least a few examples
of Jesus Himself using His Father's Name Jehovah somewhere
in the gospels?
Surely the Jehovah's Witnesses must have such a copy where
the Greek retained the supposed use of the name "Jehovah"
in the New Testament. Don't they have such a Greek manuscript from which they
made their New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures? Nope, they don't.
Where the Greek said "Lord" (Greek: kurios, not YHWH), they changed it to "Jehovah." And where the Greek said "God"
(Greek: theos, not YHWH), they translated it to "Jehovah”.
But that is not translating. That is interpretation. God has not given man the
authority to make such changes to His Word (Rev. 22:18-19).
The Name "Jehovah"
comes from the tetragrammaton which consists of the letters YHWH. These letters when transliterated into the English become "Jehovah." See further explanation below.
WHERE ARE
ALL THOSE MISSING MANUSCRIPTS?
Some argue that the original gospels, for example, were not
written in Greek, but in Hebrew, and certainly the Father's Name, YHWH, would HAVE to be in them. But there are no Hebrew gospels
written by the apostles. No one has ever found even one.
If multiple thousands of Greek manuscripts escaped this
theory of the Jehovah Witnesses, where are they? Where are even a few such
Greek manuscripts containing the Name Jehovah? Is there a Greek manuscript of
the New Testament anywhere on earth that contains the tetragrammaton-YHWH,
Jehovah? No there isn't, because there never were any in the first place.
But what about statements of Jesus where He manifested and
glorified His Father's name, the Name Jehovah?
Where did He do this? I'll tell you where - EVERYWHERE!
Christians have been standing too close to the trees to see
the forest. Oh the Father's name is in there alright, but not because the
original writers put the word YHWH/Jehovah in their writings.
Aside from David Bauscher who in 2010 made an English
translation of the New Testament from the Aramaic of The Peshitta New
Testament, and replaced Lord and God in the New Testament to Jehovah, there is
no such manuscript. There is not even one Greek manuscript or even one
reputable Translation of any Greek New Testament manuscript which contains the
name Jehovah in place of the titles, LORD
and GOD.
But to avoid any lengthy explanation or argument with my
detractors, I simply asked them: "What is the proper name that Jesus called His
Father?" I told them if they gave me the
name Jesus used for His Father, I would repent and start using it myself and in
my writings. Well, that was it, I never heard from anyone of them ever again.
Funny thing about "holier-than-thou people," they
are better at judging and condemning than sound scholarship. I think most of
them were probably embarrassed when they checked and found that nowhere in the
New Testament did Jesus call His Father by any proper name. What Jesus called
His Father was either "Lord,"
"God" or "Father."
Likewise all other New Testament writers referred to the Father only as "Lord,"
"God," or "Father."
BIBLICAL
ENIGMAS
While my question to my detractors may have stopped their
mouths, it does not solve another problem related to the name of the Father.
And that problem is, just where in the gospels did Jesus do the things He
stated below? When Jesus says, "I have declared unto them Thy Name..." we can be sure that He did, but where?
"Jesus answered them, I told
you, and ye believed not: the works that I do in My Father's Name,
they bear witness of Me" (John 10:25).
"And I have declared
unto them Thy Name, and will declare it..." (John 17:26).
"Our Father which art in
heaven, Hallowed be Thy Name" (Matt. 6:9).
"I have manifested Thy
Name unto the men which Thou gavest Me." (John
17:6).
"While I was with them in
the world, I kept them in Thy Name..." (John
17:12).
"I am come in My Father's
Name, and ye receive Me not: if another shall come in his own name,
him ye will receive..." (John 5:43).
Question: What is His Father's name? How can Jesus tell us over and
over about coming in His Father's Name; declaring His Father's Name; doing all
His works in His Father's Name; keeping His disciples in His Father's name;
hallowing His Father's name, manifesting His Father's Name; but not tell us
what that Name is? Maybe we just missed it. Maybe we are all too close to the
trees.
THE NAME
HIDDEN IN PLAIN SIGHT
Most Christians have no idea that virtually all of the Old
Testament references to "God" or "the
LORD-YHWH-Jehovah," are not spoken by God the Father,
but by someone else. And just who might that someone else be? We'll get to it.
But I will give you at least one Old Testament Hebrew
Scripture which tells us exactly what the name of God the Father is. In the 2nd
Psalm we have reference to two individuals: They are "the LORD" and "His
Anointed" and "the LORD
and My
Son."
Psalm 2:2 - "The kings of the
earth set themselves, and the rulers take counsel together, against the LORD, [Heb: YHWH-Jehovah] and against His Anointed, saying,"
Psalm 2:7 -"I will declare the
decree: the LORD [Heb:
YHWH-Jehovah] hath
said unto me, Thou artMy Son; this day have I begotten Thee."
Psalm 2:11 -"Serve the LORD [Heb: Jehovah] with fear, and rejoice with
trembling. Kiss the Son..." (and Psalm 2:12)
In these verses we can clearly identify the Father's name as
"Jehovah."
We have Jehovah and His Anointed; Jehovah and His Son; and
again Jehovah and His Son. So in these verses at least, Jehovah HAS to be the
Father as He is contrasted with His Anointed and with His Son. And so though
Jesus never called His Father by the name "Jehovah," it is clear
(from Scripture) that Jehovah is His Father's name.
Above I presented you six Scriptures spoken by our Lord
stating that Jesus came to declare, keep, hallow, manifest, etc., the NAME of
His God and Father. Which name we now know to be Jehovah (I
will cover the origin of this spelling a little later). But where in the New
Testament Scriptures did Jesus do any of this? How many of you are aware that
the Scriptures tell us Jesus was to receive a "Name?" Do you recall
that? Here are a couple:
"Being made so much better
than the angels, as He has by INHERITANCE obtained a more excellent name than
they." (Heb. 1:4).
What name?
"Wherefore God also has
highly exalted Him, and given Him A NAME which is ABOVE EVERY NAME" (Phil.
2:9).
What name is that?
Are we told anywhere what that name is? Yes we are, and I am
now going to give you a giant clue: Did you noticed that Jesus has already
obtained this name in the past tense-has obtained, has exalted, has given.
That is past tense, it is DONE!
Is there a Scripture anywhere telling us what that name is?
Yes there is. (Isn't this exciting?) There is a Scripture where Jesus Himself
tells us what name He received from His Father. Well here it is:
"And now I am no more in the
world, but these are in the world, and I come to Thee. Holy Father, keep through
Thine Own Name "those whom" Thou hast given Me,
that they may be one, as we are." (John 17:11).
Do you see it? Did you get it? No? Well neither did I the
first few dozen times I read this verse. Sometimes when the translators screw up,
they screw up big time.
Is that they way this verse should be translated? Hidden in
this verse is a truth so vast, and yet it has been hid from the eyes of
millions for centuries. Even the Jehovah's Witnesses with an absolute obsession
over the proper use of God's Name Jehovah have
translated this verse properly and YET failed to see the truth that it
contains. First, a couple of interlinear translations of his verse:
"Father Holy! Keep them
in the name of-you to-which you-have given to-me that they may
be one according as we" (John 17:11, The Concordant Publishing Concern, The Greek Text).
"Father holy, keep them
in the name of Thee, by which Thou hast given to me" (John
17:11, The Emphatic Diaglott By Benjamin
Wilson).
The words "those whom" in John 17:11 above should not be there. Oh it's
in the King James, and Strong's Concordance gives us a Greek number for it,
however, both words "whom" and "which" can represent the Greek word, "hos he ho." From Strong's: Gk: #3739 hos he ho- "who, which, what,
that." It can represent either "whom" or "which," depending on the context. In Vs. 5 of
this same chapter we read of "the glory which" God had given Jesus. We would never say, "the glory whom" God had given to Jesus. Yet this is the very same word
translated "whom" in Vs. 11 by King James translators. And unfortunately, the King James
has blinded millions to this incredible truth.
That truth being that
the Name that Jesus was "given," which He "inherited," that is "above
EVERY name," was
God's Name, His Father's Name, the NAME JEHOVAH
JESUS IS
JEHOVAH - For that is His NAME!
Holy Father, You have
given Me Your Name; now protect them by the power of Your Name so that they
will be united just as We are. (New
Living Translation - 2007)
Holy Father, keep them in Your
Name, which You Have given Me, that they may be one, even as we are
one. (English Standard Version -2001)
Holy Father, keep them in Your
Name, the Name which You have given Me, that they may be one even
as We are. (American Standard Bible)
Holy Father, keep them in Your
Name - that Name which You have given Me, so that they shall be
one, just as We are. (Aramaic Bible in Plain English)
Holy Father, keep them safe by
the power of Your Name, the Name that You gave Me, so that their
unity may be like Ours. (God's
Word Translation - 1995)
Holy Father, keep them in Thy
Name which Thou hast given Me, that they may be one as We. (Darby Bible Translation)
Holy Father, keep them true to
Thy Name-the Name which Thou hast given Me to bear-that they
may be one, even as We are. (Weymouth
New Testament)
Holy Father, keep them through
Your Name which You have given Me. that they may be one, even as We
are. (New World English Bible)
Holy Father, protect them in Your
Name, which You have given Me. (The
New Testament According to the Eastern Texts By George M. Lamsa)
Holy Father, keep them in Your
Name that You have given Me, so that they may be one just as We are. (The
New Testament Bible for Catholics)
Holy Father, keep them by the
power of Thy Name which Thou hast given Me. (James Moffatt, A New Translation)
I have given them the
honour that You gave Me, that they may be one, as we are one. (The New Testament in Modern English By J. B. Phillips)
Holy Father, watch over them on
account of Your Own Name which You have given Me, in order that
they may be one just as we are. (New
World Translation of the Holy Scriptures, Watch Tower Bible & Tract Society
of Pennsylvania-THE JEHOVAH'S WITNESSES)
Holy Father, protect them in Your
Name that You have given Me, so that they may be one, as we are
one. (New Revised Standard Version)
Holy Father, protect them by the
power of Your Name-the Name You gave to Me - so that they may
be one as We are one. (Holy Bible New International Version)
NOW can you see the forest? That verse has been there hiding
in plain view for many centuries. Furthermore, verse 12 confirms all
this:
"While I was with them in
the world, I kept them in Thy Name: those You gave Me I
kept..." (Vs. 12)
Jesus received (past tense) that Name before His ministry even began.
Jesus was not asking His Father to "keep them" through His Own Name as the King James would suggest: (keep through Thine Own
Name those whom Thou hast given Me). Vs. 12 shows that it was JESUS that was already keeping and had
kept them through His Father's Name which He tells us His Father gave to Him
back in Vs. 11. It was "God's NAME" that His Father had given Jesus, so that JESUS could keep
those "in
Thy Name" whom His Father had given Him in Vs. 12!
"And what is the exceeding
greatness of His power to us-ward who believe, according to the working of His
mighty power, Which He wrought in Christ, when he raised him from the dead, and
set Him at His own right hand in the heavenly places. Far above all principality,
and power, and might, and dominion, and EVERY NAME THAT IS NAMED, not only in
this world, but also in that which is to come" (Eph.
1:19-21).
God the Father has given His Son His NAME, His POWER, and
His GLORY, but nowhere does the Father exalt His Son ABOVE Himself:
"But when He says all things
are put under Him [Jesus] it is manifest that
He [GOD] is excepted..." (I
Cor. 15:27).
Let me give you one more exciting verse that pulls all these
verses together. When was Jesus given this Name? By Whom? And what was that
Name?
Here's the answer in one verse:
WHEN DID
JESUS RECEIVE HIS NAME ABOVE EVERY NAME?
"I am come in my Father's
name, and ye receive me not: if another shall come in his own name, him ye will
receive." (John 5:43).
How is it most Christians have apparently never seen this
verse before? Seven little words tell it ALL.
WHO came? "I [Jesus] am come..."
WHEN did Jesus have this Name? When He came, when He came
into this world, when He was born:
"She shall bring forth a
Son, and you shall call His Name JESUS [Jehovah]" (Matt. 1:21)
Whose Name was that: "...My Father's name [Jehovah]..."
The Name that Jesus came with; was born with; taught with;
exalted and manifested His Father with; that was above every name, IS THE NAME
JESUS, transliterated from His Fathers name JEHOVAH,
transliterated from His Hebrew name YHWH.?
There is absolutely nothing spurious, pagan, corrupt, or counterfeit about the
glorious Names: Jesus and
Jehovah!
Next, notice the words: "You shall call
His Name Jesus." God did not leave it up to
Joseph and Mary to choose their own name for their Son, they were commanded by
an Angel from God the name they were to give Him.
It is rare that God dictates the name given to any person.
He changed the name of Abram to Abraham (Gen. 18:5).
He changed Jacob's name to Israel (Gen. 32:28). But for the
most part, God allowed everyone to do their own naming beginning with "And Adam called his wife's
name Eve..." (Gen. 3:20).
The name that they were to give Him had to reflect all of the virtues of God
His Father.
God was obviously insistent that His Son's Name be HIS NAME
(in Greek), since God had determined that the New Testament Scriptures should
be preserved in the Greek language. The name of the Son in Greek had to reflect
the same character traits as His Father name does in Hebrew. In fact we have
Scriptural proof that the Father exhibits all of the same powerful in both the
Old Testament and the New Testament. And so the names Jehovah and Jesus have
been transliterated for every language on earth. It is the NAME given to Jesus
that must reflect all of the virtues of Jehovah His Father.
And when we read the prophecy concerning His name, we read
this:
"For unto us a child is
born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder:
and His Name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, The mighty
God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace" (Isa.
9:6).
Did you catch that? It was His "Name" that was to be called Wonderful, etc.
Look at the list of Character traits attributed to the "Name" Jesus was to be given. If "Jesus"
is the same as "Jehovah," then all of the character traits that we are told would be
attributed to the "Name [which] He shall be called," must also apply to Jehovah or their Names would not be
the same, and Jesus would not have been His Father's name at all. Let's look at
the qualities contained in the name of the Son and see if these are indeed the
same attributes as contained in Jehovah, His Father. We will look in both the
Old and the New Testaments:
WONDERFUL:
Old Testament: Many places in the Old Testament speak of
the "wonderful" works and things of God. "Many of LORD my God are
Thy wonderful works..." (Psalm 40:5). New Testament: "... the wonderful works of
God." (Acts 2:11)
COUNSELOR:
"Thy counsels of
old are faithfulness and truth" (Isa. 25:1).
New Testament: "For who hath known the mind of the Lord? or
who hath been His counselor?" (Rom.
11:34). Deut. 7:21 counselor, Deut. 10:17, Job 36:5...
Luke 9:34, I Pet. 5:6
MIGHTY GOD:
"Thou shalt not be
affrighted at them: for the LORD thy God is among you, a mighty God and
terrible." (Deut. 7:21)
EVERLASTING FATHER:
Isaiah 63:16, 8; ...I
John 1:2, II Cor. 11:31 - "God and Father blessed for
EVERMORE.," Phil. 4:20 "unto God the Father glory
for ever and ever."
PRINCE OF PEACE:
I Kings 2:33, lEV.
26:6, Isa. 9:7, Isa 54:10 Isa. 57:19, "peace from God the
Father" Rom. 1;7 "The God of peace," Rom.
16:20, I Thess. 1:1 - "peace from God our Father,"
"The very GOD OF PEACE"
(Thess. 5:23) And II
Thess. 3:16 Jesus is "LORD of peace." II John 1:3-Father and Son both personify
PEACE
But is the very use of the letter "J" in error? Isn't it a recent invention?
TRANSLITERATING
NAMES
We are told that Jesus should be Yeshu, Yeshua, Yehoshua, or
some other similar spelling. That is His correct name in Hebrew, and that is
how it should be written in the Greek New Testament. But there are
problems:
- The
New Testament was not written in Hebrew
- The
Holy Spirit inspired our Lord's name to be written as IESOUS in the Greek
New Testament
- It
is right and proper when translating from one language to another to
transliterate proper names
The critics of "Jesus"
say His name is from G-zeus, a pagan god. They demonize His name by calling it:
His Gentile nickname, spurious, counterfeit, a pseudo substitute, earth pig or
swine, man horse, man beast, and anti-messiah. Yet learned experts can show
that the very name that the critics of Jesus say should be used, apparently is
found nowhere in Scripture.
And so it appears their preferred name "Yahshua" is not found in either the Greek or the Hebrew Scriptures;
"While there is a clear etymological path concerning
the name of Jesus that clearly shows its Hebrew origin, the name YAHshua
cannot be found in the Hebrew scriptures. The name Yahshua is also not
transliterable into a Biblical Greek name"
Let me ask these critics of God's Word a serious question:
What does the Hebrew Name YHWH (Yahweh/Jehovah) mean?
Answer: Jehovah is Salvation.
And what does the Greek Name Iesous transliterated to Jesus
means?
Answer: Jehovah is Salvation.
They are the SAME NAME.
Here is how scholar and writer Richard Rives explains how
transliterating works:
"A translation
conveys meaning, so Yeshua and Iesous mean
the exact same thing. Jesus is not a translation, it's a modernized Latin
transLITERation of Iesous. A transliteration is simply a letter-for-letter
switch: the letters in one language are swapped for letters in another language
that make the same sounds. Jesu is a Latin word
that sounds like the Greek Iesous. Jesus does not mean
"Yahweh saves" or "the Lord saves" or even "He saves". Despite the fact that Jesus Himself
means a great deal to many people, there's no English meaning to Jesus at all.
The name Jesus is merely the English pronounciation of Joshua/Iesous which means "Jehovah
is Salvation."
IESOUS was the word chosen by the writers of the Greek New
Testament to represent both the Hebrew Old Testament Joshua and the English New
Testament Jesus.
The word was derived by way of transliteration (the
representation of the sounds of the Hebrew word Yeh Shua with the Greek letters
having the closest corresponding sound.)
JESUS: was the word chosen by the King James translators to
represent the Hebrew spelling of the Biblical Joshua Yeh Shua after Ezra and
Nehemiah. This word was also derived by way of transliteration ( the
representation of the sounds of the Greek word IESOUS with the English letters
having the closest corresponding sound.)
In an effort to determine the truth I personally made a trip to Greece to study inscriptions and to talk with experts concerning
the name Zeus. The conclusion of my investigation is that there is no
association with the name Zeus and that of Jesus.
The English Name Jesus is an excellent transliteration of
the Hebrew name Yeshua which means YAH is SALVATION, http://www.toolong.com/pages/events.htm Author of: "TOO LONG IN THE SUN"
Transliterating a name from one language to another is NOT
changing the name. It is the SAME name, but spelled and pronounced to suit the
language into which it is being translated. Now how hard is that? Yet wanna-be
scholars would have us think that this is utter corruption, fabrication,
counterfeiting, and blasphemous. Their criticism of transliteration is
unfounded. If that were true, then it would be counterfeiting and corruption to
translate anything into ANY language. Here is how simple this is: The English
spelling of Yeshua is "Joshua." However, when translated from Hebrew
into the Greek language, the name Yeshua becomes IÄ“sous, and the English
spelling for IÄ“sous is "Jesus."
If names were only translated from one language to another,
it would even be offensive in some cases, silly or awkward in others. For
example the name Magdalene means "woman from Magdala." So suppose
translating that name from one language to another we translated the meaning of
the word, rather than the sound of the name. A mother might then say:
"This is my daughter from Magdala." Someone would probably remark:
'Oh how nice, your daughter is from Magdala." The mother would have to
respond: "No, she is a British, her Name is "Magdalene meaning “woman
from Magdala"-that is her NAME."
Pretty silly, Magdalene is a beautiful name and in
translating it from one language to another we would want to transliterate it
and retain if possible its beautiful sound.
A translation of the meaning of the Tetragrammaton (YHWH),
would be something like "I Am that I Am," or "I Am Coming,"
or just "I Am." But in speaking or writing we would not call Him
"I Am Coming." Rather we want to retain in our new language the sound
of His name. And since we only have four consonants (YHWH) to work with, vowels
must be added in order to have any kind of pronunciation at all. Hence the
plethora of suggested possibilities by various scholars:
Yahweh, Yahwah, Yahawah, Yahovah, Yaheveh, Yehaweh, Yehowah,
Yehowih, Yehwih, Yahuweh, Yahueh, Yahuah, Jahveh, Iabe, Iahueh, Iehouah, and
Jehovah:
There are two forms of the Tetragrammaton: YHWH and YHVH. So
when vowels are inserted we can see two versions: Ya-Ha-WaH or Ya-Ho-VaH.
There is no Y in Paleo Hebrew, only the letter
"I." And Pastor Reckart says the rule of grammar is that when the
"I" is followed by a vowel it takes on the "J" sound of the
I (the "I" can represent three distinct sounds). So in pronouncing
YaHoVaH it would be JaHoVaH-Jehovah!
You can find thousands and thousands of pages of material
written to discredit the name "Jesus" and "Jehovah," yet it
takes only a few paragraphs of real scholarship to send all their historical
fabrications to the scrap pile.
Both names mean YAH is Salvation. Here is how Jesus/Joshua
looks in Hebrew יהושוע. pronounced Yehoshua / Jehoshua.
A HOST OF
CRITICS DISPARAGE GOD'S NAME
It has been relentlessly argued that the use of the letter
"J" in any Scriptural use is spurious, because they say not only
didn't they have the letter J, they didn't have the sound of the "J"
either. This claim is challenged by numerous scholars. Here is a sample of one
who disagrees they had no J sound in Hebrew:
First, the name Jesus in English is the same as Iesous in
Greek when it is understood the "I" has a "J" sound because
the name Iesous is a Hebrew name and should be so pronounced. So in English we
have Jesus and in Greek we have Jesous, the letter "I" correctly
having the "J" sound.http://www.whyapostolic.com/html/jesus.html
Just recently I received the following admonition from one
of my detractors:
"Jesus is a man made name that has only been in
existences for about 300 to 400 years and if names do not translate for one
tongue to another which I believe they do not, then the authority and character
of the name Jesus would not reflect the same authority and character as the
name Yesu. Jesus is not the name that was given to the man the son of God [as
though 'Yesu' was?], so if one believes in the name of Jesus they are
believing on another authority, an authority of man and not of God."
(Underline is mine)
Carried to his logical conclusion, anyone believing and
trusting in the Name of Jesus Christ will NOT be saved. Now that really is
heresy.
THE UNIVERSAL JEWISH ENCYCLOPEDIA says: "JEHOVAH is an erroneous pronunciation of the Tetragrammaton a four lettered name of God, made up of the Hebrew letters Yod He Vav He. The word "JEHOVAH" therefore is a misreading for which there is no warrant and which makes no sense in Hebrew" The Hebrew letters point to a Yod Y the more correct pronunciation is Yahweh or some form deriving from the same consonants. For example Yah is used in its shorter form in Ex.15:2 and 17:15, Isa.12:2 and Ps.118:14.
Okay... who am I to challenge The Universal Jewish
Encyclopedia? Well, really, no one. But let me give it a try anyway:
It states: "JEHOVAH is an erroneous pronunciation of
the Tetragrammaton..." Well, yes, of course it is. But they are setting up
a fraudulent straw man. Any thinking person knows that "Jehovah" is
not the pronunciation of YHWH. But guess what? That is WHY WE TRANSLATE
Tetragrammaton to our language! Give me a break. But "Jehovah" IS how
one pronounces YHWH after it has been translated and
transliterated INTO ENGLISH! OF COURSE "Jehovah" makes no sense in
Hebrew - neither does the name "Universal Jewish Encyclopedia" make
any sense in Hebrew! That's an ENGLISH TITLE, NOT HEBREW! Am I going too fast
for anyone?
Therefore using such words as "misleading,"
"no warrant," "makes no sense," and "erroneous"
are highly defamatory words designed to prejudice us non-academics against both
the right and proper spelling and the right and proper pronunciation of the
Tetragramma / YHWH in English!
Here's another: JEHOVAH - "is an erroneous form of
the name of the God of Israel." (ENCYCLOPEDIA AMERICANA) (Underline mine)
So "Jehovah" is an erroneous "form" of
the name of the God of Israel, which of course we know is the Tetragrammaon -
YHWH. Alright. There's a reason why I underlined the word "form."
Here is the primary definition of "form"-shape, structure, and
appearance. Does then the letters "Jehovah" have the shape of YHWH?
No. Do the letters "Jehovah" have the same structure as YHWH? No. Do
the letters Jehovah have the same appearance as the letters YHWH? No. Well, I
guess then the Encyclopedia Americana is correct. Except for one little thing:
No scholar that I know has ever contended that the letters J-E-H-O-V-A-H have
the same shape, structure, and appearance as the letters Y-H-W-H.
If you don't think Jehovah has the "appearance" of
YHWH, let's take it to the source: יהוה. Now do they
have the same appearance "form." Total nonsense. Here's another:
JEHOVAH - "the pronunciation 'Jehovah' is an error resulting among
Christians from combining the consonants YHWH with the vowels of ADHONAY."
(ENCYCLOPEDIA BRITANNICA)
Come on Ray, you aren't going to take on the one and only
"Encyclopedia Britannica, are you? Well... let me give it a shot: Just
maybe they are inserting what they think to be proper vowels into the
Tetragrammaton, seeing it is not possible to pronounce four CONSONENTS in a row
without using any "vowel" sounds. And if it's an "error" to
insert vowels, just how pray tell do the Jews pronounce it without vowels? And
vowels are vowels, it doesn't matter where they come from (there are, after
all, only five to choose from).
Another critic: JEHOVAH -"is an erroneous form of the
divine name of the covenant God of Israel." (THE NEW SCHAFF-HERZOG
ENCYCLOPEDIA) Here we go with "form" again. The English word
"Jehovah" is not supposed to "look like," have the
"appearance" of, "structure or shape" of the ENGLISH LETTERS
Y-H-W-H or the HEBREW LETTERS יהוה. I'll tell you what the word
and letters "Jehovah" are suppose to represent. They represent the
ENGLISH pronunciation of a HEBREW word. Now how hard is THAT?
One more: JEHOVAH -"is a mispronunciation of the Hebrew
YHWH the name of God. This pronunciation is grammatically impossible. The form
"Jehovah" is a philological impossibility." (THE JEWISH
ENCYCLOPEDIA p. 160)
No expert on languages would ever suggest that YHWH is
correctly pronounced "Jehovah." No one has ever said that, because no
one believes such a thing. All of these above statements from supposed
reputable publications of higher learning have set up BOGUS straw men
statements to prejudice the uninformed into believing that the Divine Names of
Jesus and Jehovah are to be shunned like some poisonous snake! They will give
account-one day!
BUT WHAT
ABOUT THE "J"
"There is no J pronunciation in Hebrew so it is false
to apply a J to the Tetragrammaton- if one wants to be accurate in pronouncing
his name in Hebrew." http://www.letusreason.org/JW14.htm
First of all, there IS the "J" sound in Hebrew,
and second, we don't want to know how to pronounce the Tetragrammaton in Hebrew
anymore than we want to know how to pronounce ALL words in Hebrew. We want to
know how to understand the Hebrew Scriptures in ENGLISH, and the Greek
Scriptures in ENGLISH. And it would be nice to be able to pronounce God's name
in English.
Anyway, we are told that it is wrong to use the letter
"J" for any name in either the Old or the New Testaments. And this is
so, because we are told there no "J" sound in the Hebrew language,
and that this letter was not invented or used untill the 17th century. Early in
the 17th century (1611 when the King James Version came out), they had not yet
discovered the J, hence Jesus is spelled Iesous in the King James Version.
Tis true, that the J was not used as a letter of the
alphabet until the 17th century, but is is emphatically not true, that there
was no "Ja" sound in the Hebrew language.
"To claim the sound of the letter "J" did not
exist until the alphabet letter was created from the letter "I" is
simply a lie. The sound now attributed to the letter "J" was
"one" of three sounds that the letter "I" could stand for.
All that happened when the letter "J" was formed was to separate the
sound from the ltter "I" and give it, its own alphabet character.
Thus, in many words or names where the letter "I" had the
"J" sound, the new letter stood in the place where the letter
"I" once stood. There was no evil in this and no plot by Gutenburg or
anyone else to profane the alphabet, words, or names as they are now spelled
using the new letter "J." (From:
"Meaning of the Name JESUS" By Pastor G. Reckart http://www.whyapostolic.com/html/jesus.html p.2).
You know, there just isn't a whole lot more one needs to
know than what Pastor Reckart has stated above. Since the ancient "I"
did contain the sound "J" all that was done was to put a little tale
on the bottom of the well-established "I" so as to never be confused
with one of the other two sounds attributed to the letter "I." And
from that all kinds of conspiracy theories have arisen against the letter
"J" and against the English pronunciations of the names of Jehovah
and Jesus.
Pastor Reckart has traced the "J" sound far before
the common era. He has located Egyptian writings 2000 BC in which the
"J" sound is found. The "I" has three sounds depending how
it is used. There were two pronunciations of God's chosen people: Yisrael and
Israel, And the third sound of the "I" is a "J" sound as in
Jezreel.
How absurd to believe that millions of God-fearing believers
in our Lord Jesus Christ will not be saved because they didn't pronounce the
name of their Saviour in the same way that today's Holier-than-thou Sacred Name
Societies demand of their followers. I receive e-mails at least weekly wherein
writers come to me in the name of Yaushua and bid me farewell by the title
Elohim, thinking that they have performed some words of passage into a higher
spiritual realm. This is the same kind of superstitious nonsense practiced by
the ancient Egyptians and the modern Free Masons.
THE GLORY
OF GOD
If Jesus and Jehovah are just different spellings of the
very same name, how can Jesus be Jehovah and Jehovah be Jesus? Good question,
and I will try to solve that enigma for you in my paper "Solving the
Enigma of God." But for now, let's notice a few things that do prove that
this is so.
Did Jehovah say that He was NEVER gives His glory to
another? Yes He did.
"The God of Israel, the LORD of hosts...For Mine Own
sake, even for Mine Own sake, will I do it: for how should My Name be polluted?
and I will NOT give My glory unto another" (Isaiah 48:2 &11).
"I am the LORD [YHWH-Jehovah/Jesus]: that is My Name:
and My glory will I NOT give unto another, neither My praise to
graven images" (Isaiah 42:8).
If Jesus is not Jehovah, how do we square these statement of
Jehovah in Isaiah with the following statement of Jesus Matthew, Mark, Luke,
& John?
"For the Son of man shall come IN THE GLORY OF
HIS FATHER with His angels; and then He shall reward every man
according to his works" (Matt.
16:27).
"Whosoever therefore shall be ashamed of Me and of My
words in this adulterous and sinful generation; of him also shall the Son of
man be ashamed, when HE COMES IN THE GLORY OF HIS FATHER with
the holy angels" (Mark 8:38).
"For whosoever shall be ashamed of Me and of My words, of
him shall the Son of man be ashamed, when HE SHALL COME IN HIS OWN
GLORY, AND IN HIS FATHER'S [GLORY], and of the holy angels" (Luke
9:26)..
"And now, O Father, GLORIFY THOU ME WITH THINE
OWN SELF [Thine OWN glory] with the
glory which I had with thee before the world was" (John 17:5)..
"When Jesus heard that He said:
"This sickness is not unto death, but FOR THE GLORY
OF GOD, that THE SON of God might be GLORIFIED
THEREBY" (John 11:4).
God's word does not contradict. When Jehovah gave Jesus His
"glory," He did not give it to "another." Jesus is not
"another." Jesus IS Jehovah! And... AND, Jehovah IS JESUS.
Notice below just Who John prepared a road in the wilderness
for. Isaiah says Jehovah, whereas Mark says Jesus.
PREPARE
YE THE WAY OF THE LORD
We read the following description of John the Baptist:
"The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare
ye the way of the Lord, make His paths straight" (Mark 1:3).
Of Whom is this verse speaking? Who was John to prepare a
straight path for? Why for "the Lord," of course. And Who was the
Lord but Jesus.
This statement comes from Isaiah 40:3 and it refers to the
LORD, YHWH, Jehovah:
"The voice of him that cries i the wilderness, prepare
ye the way of the LORD make straight in the desert a highway for our God."
The conclusion is inescapable: The LORD GOD of the Old
Testament is the Lord Jesus of the New Testament.
JEHOVAH
AND JESUS HAVE IDENTICAL CHARACTERISTICS
Someone might ask: 'If Jehovah gave Jesus HIS NAME, why
isn't His name also Jehovah?" Jesus' name in Hebrew is Jehovah, and
Jehovah's name in Greek is Jesus. When Jehovah gave His Son His name, Jehovah,
He did so in the New Testament in the Greek language.
We shall now see that the character traits of Jesus and His
Father are the same.
Jesus represented His Father in the flesh perfectly. Being
made flesh and having the same weaknesses of the flesh, Jesus had to constantly
pray to HIs Father for the strength and wisdom to always do the right thing,
but that is exactly what He did all the days of His life in the flesh. Notice
the virtues of Jehovah and compare them to Jesus.
JEHOVAH JIREH
THE LORD WILL PROVIDE: This name means: "He
provides" - Jehovah is called this in Gen. 22:13-14 where God provided a
ram to be sacrificed in place of Abraham's his son.
JESUS
In John 1:29 we are told that Jesus provided Himself as the
Lamb of God which takes away the sins of the world.
"But my God shall supply your need [provide] according to His riches in glory BY Christ
Jesus"(Phil. 4:19).
JEHOVAH MEKADDSH
THE LORD SANCTIFIES: God sanctifies His people which means to hallow or make
holy.
"Speak thou also unto the children of Israel, saying,
Verily My sabbaths ye shall keep: for it is a sign between Me and you
throughout your generations; that ye may know that I am the LORD that
doth sanctify you" (Exodus
31:13).
JESUS
Jesus sanctifies us also:
"By the which will we are sanctified through
the offering of the body of Jesus Christ" (Heb. 10:10)
JEHOVAH NISSI
THE LORD OUR BANNER: Moses said that Jehovah was his Banner,
a symbol of victory, Ex. 17:15. A banner is a flag or symbol of victory (Isa.
13:2). A banner is a flag or symbol of a military commander, and when flown it
signifies VICTORY.
Our Banner of victory is Jesus Christ:
"But thanks be to God, which gives us the victory
through our Lord Jesus Christ" (I
Cor. 15:57)
We have not just won a battle but we as Jesus are to
overcome the world, I John 5:5.
JEHOVAH RHOI
THE LORD MY SHEPHERD: He is called Shepherd 23 Psalm 23: A
Psalm of David. The Hebrew is just "LORD My Shepherd," Translators
inserted the word "is" to make a sentence out of this Name of
God. The LORD is my shepherd; I shall not want. God likens His
people to sheep:
"He shall feed His flock like a shepherd: He shall
gather the lambs with His arm, and carry them in His bosom, and shall gently
lead those that are with young" (Isa.
40:11).
JESUS
Jesus said: "I am the Good Shepherd" the
Good Shepherd gives His life for the sheep (John 10:11). Jesus gives His life
for all the sheep of the whole world (I John 2:2).
JEHOVAH SHALOM
THE LORD IS PEACE
"So Gideon built an altar to the Lord there and called
it Jehovahshalom ['Shalom' means peace]."
(Judges 6:24).
JESUS
One of the prophesied names of Jesus is "The Prince of
Peace."
"For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given:
and his name shall be called The Prince of Peace" (Isaiah 9:5).
And Jesus verifies His power to impart "peace"
"Peace I leave with you, My peace I
give unto you..." (John
14:27)
JEHOVAH ISIDKENU
THE LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS:
"In his days Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall
dwell safely: and this is His Name whereby He shall be
called, THE LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS" (Jer. 23:6).
JESUS
Jesus fulfills all righteousness:
"And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so
now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness" (Matt. 3:15).
"Even the righteousness of God which is
by faith of Jesus Christ" (Rom.
3:22).
"Because He hath appointed a day, in the which He will
judge the world in righteousness by that Man [that
man Jesus]" (Acts 17:31).
JEHOVAH ROPHE
JEHOVAH IS OUR HEALER:
"...I will put none of these diseases upon thee, which
I have brought upon the Egyptians: for I am the LORD that heals
thee." (Ex. 15:26).
JESUS
Jesus healed thousands of people during His ministry:
"And Jesus went about all Galilee, teaching in their
synagogues, and preaching the gospel of the kingdom, and healing all
manner of sickness and all manner of disease among the people"(Matt. 4:23).
"How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost
and with power: who went aboutdoing good, and healing all that were
oppressed of the devil; for God was with him" (Acts 10:38).
JEHOVAH SHAMMAH
THE LORD IS THERE:
"And the name of the city from that time on shall be
the Lord Is There [Heb: 'Jehovah shammah]"
(Ezek. 48:35).
I saved this last name till last, as it is a very unusual
name for the LORD, but most informative. Why would this city be called
"The LORD IS THERE?" This is one of the most comforting names of God.
In times past Israel wasn't sure the LORD was "there" with them Here
is what they asked:
"And he called the name of the place Massah, and
Meribah, because of the chiding of the children of Israel, and because they
tempted the LORD, saying, Is the LORD among us, or not?" (Exodis 17:7).
Israel wanted to know whether God was with them or not after
the terrible ordeal of the Babylonian captivity. God was letting them know
through Ezekiel that God were "BE THERE." This is most interesting.
Some scholars firmly believe that were Jehovah said His Name was "I Am
that I Am," means "coming."
The name Jehovah represents the third person singular of the
verb Hayah (old form Havah) in its "present" or pictorial tense.
This would signify "He is becoming," or "He will come to
be." It must be related to the form found at Exodus 3:14, Ehyeh,
which can only mean "I am coming to be." (From Alexander Thomson-"Who is Our
God" p. 48).
And so we have in God's name both the promise of
"coming" and "being there." And this is precisely what God
has done. God has "come" to mankind.
"Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign;
Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call His
name Immanuel [Heb: 'with us is God]" (Isa. 7:14).
JESUS
"Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring
forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being
interpreted is, God with us" (Matt.
1:23).
"The Word was God... And the Word was made
flesh..." God began fulfilling this
aspect of His name when He came to us in the Flesh of Jesus Christ.
"For in him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead
bodily" (Col. 2:9).
Is God still "with us?" Is Jesus still
"there?"
"For where two or three are gathered together in My
Name, THERE am I in the midst of them"(Matt. 18:20).
And this:
"He which testifies these things said, Surely I
COME QUICKLY. A-men. Even so, COME, Lord Jesus."
And finally:
"Behold, the tabernacle of God is with them,
and He will dwell with them, and they shall be His people, and God
Himself shall be with them, and be their God" (Rev. 21:2).
May JEHOVAH be with us....
