THE MYTH OF FREE-WILL EXPOSED

THE MYTH OF FREE-WILL EXPOSED

By O. Khodjo

Welcome to mis-translations and mis-interpretations

I have been telling Christians for a long time that the crime of "iniquity—LAWLESSNESS" of Matt. 7:23, is primarily the belief in one’s own sovereignty—commonly called "free will."

According to Church teaching and most all teaching of all religions in the world, man has a "free will" that enables him to THWART the very will of God.

If you or I or anyone can actually and factually THWART THE VERY WILL OF GOD, then we indeed can "…oppose and exalt ourselves above all that is called God, or that is worshipped…"

But this thing we call "free will" is an illusion, a phantom, an idol of the heart. It has no real existence other than in the minds of all those clinging to this form of iniquity. I will prove to everyone from the Scriptures in the pages to follow that this idol of "human free moral agency" called "free will" is the greatest single SIN that must be removed from our consciousness in order to be truly spiritually CONVERTED!

Free will does not actually and literally mean that one can make Choices, create, change his mind, or reformulate ideas and data, etc., but that those choices and thought processes must themselves be free thoughts and free choices. "Free will" is only true if our choices are also free. But free from what?

"It is not in man to direct his own steps" (Jer. 10:23).

Yes man has a will, there is no debate, but man can’t direct his own steps, even though we do things on our own but is it free from being forced upon us against our will, or free from being caused by anyone or anything except our OWN will? Yes, man can think, process data, make choices, change his choices, etc. But none of these activities are free from internal or external CAUSES.

It is the teaching that man himself determines his own will, FREELY, without anything causing his will or his choices to be what they are. The idea of free will or free moral agency is that man can by himself unaided by anything else; originate his own choices of his will.

There are laws of science that men do not wish to carry over into his private and spiritual life. I will admit that it is a real shock when we first come to understand that of ourselves we cannot make one "free" choice to do good. Something must cause that choice, but the carnal mind hates to be "caused" to do anything. Free will is a phantom illusion that has deceived the whole world.

"Where is the wise? Where is the Scribe? Where is the disputer [debater] of this world? Has not God made foolish [Gk: ‘stupid’] the wisdom of this world?" (I Cor. 1:20).

Notice that it is not the "foolishness" of this world that God says is stupid, but rather it is the "wisdom" of this world that is stupidity to God! And one of the most profound philosophical and theological pieces of wisdom that is universally agreed upon in this world is the belief that man possesses free will or free moral agency. Virtually everyone in all ages has believed this teaching of free will, and yet not one of them has ever seen it proved either scientifically or scripturally.

Statistically speaking, there has been relatively few of the world’s population that have ever heard of the name of Jesus Christ (which name is admittedly the only name under heaven by which men "must be saved," Acts 4:12). So what happens to all of the billions upon billions upon billions of boys and girls, men and women, who have never heard the name of Jesus? 

DOES MAN REALLY CHOOSE TO GO TO HELL?

Maybe we should examine for a moment this idea of Christendom that man "chooses to go to hell."

Just how does man choose to go to hell, anyway? First a definition:

"Choose v 1. To select from a number of possible alternatives" (The American Heritage College Dictionary)

How does one "select from a number of possible alternatives" unless he is presented with a number of possible alternatives? But then again, world famous preachers, says, "You send yourself to “Hell” for rejecting the gospel of Jesus Christ." How one actually rejects something that they have never heard of, however, presents its own set of problems.

My dictionary tells me that the word "reject" means: "To refuse to accept, submit to, believe, or make use of." Can anyone give me an intelligent explanation as to just how one would do all of those things with regard to something they have never ever even heard of?

Is there a place and time in every man’s life when he is presented with, and given an opportunity to select from either a place called heaven or a place called “hell”, where he will voluntarily live for all eternity? Such a proposition is absurd. People have lived and died by the billions not having heard of Jesus and Heaven or Satan and “Hell”.

 After years of following Jesus daily the APOSTLES were not as yet converted. In the evening of the last Passover Jesus tells Peter?

"And the Lord said, Simon, Simon, behold Satan has desired to have you, that he may sift you as wheat; But I have prayed for you, that your faith fall not: and when you are converted, strengthen your brethren" (Luke 22:31-32).

Yes indeed, "…when you are converted…." And just when might that be?

Up until the very last day with their Lord, the apostles all believed that they possessed the power of free will, which could enable them to choose their own destiny, and that they could and would have the strength of self determinism and free will to maintain that course. But Jesus told His disciples that they would all forsake Him. In other words, Jesus was foretelling of events that would cause (even ‘force,’ if you will) them to change their wills, against their previously stated wills. They of course, all denied that Jesus knew what He was talking about.

"And Jesus said unto them, all ye shall be offended because of Me this night; for it is written, I shall smite the shepherd, and the sheep shall be scattered" (Mark 14:27 & Zech. 13:7).

The disciples all said that they would remain loyal. But Jesus said that they would all be offended because of Him. Was there a reason for God causing the disciples to will loyalty to Jesus and then in the same night to will to deny Jesus? Does God do anything in vain without a reason? This was all part of their conversion process. God totally humiliated them by proving to them that their own will was not free to do what they wanted, but that

"…it is God [not man] which works in you BOTH TO WILL [God causes us ‘to will’] and TO DO [God causes us ‘to do’] of His good pleasure" to bring about His intentions (Phil. 2:13).

In just one night God smashed the presumed free will of all the disciples. They lost confidence in their flesh after that night. James later shows us just how well he learned this lesson of so-called free self determinism:

"Go to now, ye that say, Today or tomorrow we will go into such a city, and continue there a year, and buy and sell, and get gain: Whereas ye know not what shall be on the morrow. For what is your life? It is even a vapour, which appears for a little time, and then vanishes away. For that ye ought to say, if the Lord will, we shall live, and do this, or that" (James 4:13-15).

Free will where?

James certainly agrees with Scripture and Science that man has the ability "to will." But he also fully recognizes that there are two things that constantly oppose and change the will of man, so that it cannot be said that the will is free to will its own destiny for even a day or an hour.

What are these two factors over which man has absolutely no control whatsoever?

1. Factor number one--CIRCUMSTANCES: What did the Holy Spirit of God inspire (cause?) James to explain as a major factor in what determines the true outcome of man’s will? Answer: "Whereas you know not what shall be on the morrow."

How did all the disciples will to remain loyal to Jesus no matter what, at one moment in time, and in the next moment in time, they all changed their will to forsake Him? What changed their wills? Circumstances; One moment they were at ease and safe in the upper room, and at a later moment they were in the garden surrounded by Roman Soldiers! Fear was the circumstance that caused their (un-free) wills to change.

2. Factor number two—GOD’S WILL: Notice the second thing that the Holy Spirit inspired James to write regarding what will or will not happen on any given day to any given person. "…if the Lord will…"

Who was in charge of all these circumstances, which caused the disciples to change their wills? Why God, of course. They did not want to change their wills. They did not desire to deny their Lord and Saviour. They did not wish to make liars and fools of themselves. They did not want to be shown that they were all cowards. Well then, why did they change their wills if they did not wish to change their wills? Were they free to not change their wills? No, they were not free.

DIFFERENTIATING BETWEEN GOD’S STATED WILL AND HIS PLAN OR INTENTIONS

Few students of the Scriptures have learned the truth regarding God’s stated WILL and His PLAN or INTENTIONS. They are clearly not one and the same. They operate completely differently for different purposes.

First we should understand that God’s will is used both as a noun and a verb. As a noun, God’s will is virtually synonymous with His GOAL. It is usually not too hard to tell in Scripture whether the word "will" is used as a noun or a verb. In the Scripture we just used to show that things only happen "if God will," it is used as a verb. And whenever God uses His will as a verb, then it absolutely will be fulfilled and carried out at the time and place that He wills it.

If, however, God is speaking of His will as a noun, meaning His ultimate goal, then it does not immediately come about in totality at the place and time that He states it. A perfect example of God’s will as a noun and it not coming to total fruition at the place and time stated, is in what is popularly called "The Lord’s Prayer."

"Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be Thy name. Thy kingdom come, Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven" (Matt. 6:9-10).

DID PHARAOH HAVE FREE WILL?

We will now look at some of the most profound and yet most misunderstood and not believed Scriptures in the entire Bible.

"For He says to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion" (Rom. 9:15).

Just who is in control in this statement, Holy Ghost Babies or God? Man’s will is not free to contradict what God says He WILL DO.

"So then it is not of him that wills, nor of him that runs, but OF GOD that shows mercy" (Rom.9:16).

What Holy Ghost Babies "wills" has absolutely nothing to do with what God WILL DO.

"For the Scripture says unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised you up, that I might show My powers in you, and that My name might be declared throughout all the earth. Therefore has He mercy on whom He will have mercy, and whom He will He hardens" (Rom.9:17-18).

Pharaoh did not harden his own heart—God said that He hardened it.

Remember I said that God has a stated will as a goal and an active will in the plan or process of obtaining His stated will? Right here we can see this principle in action:

Well, there it is. How hard is that to understand? But who will believe it? From Pharaoh’s birth until his death, God had a purpose for Pharaoh’s life, and God controlled every aspect of it. Pharaoh had not "free will" in any of these events. God changes not; He operates the same way in everyone’s life. You will either be a vessel of honour or a vessel of dishonour, and it is ALL UP TO GOD!

WHO HAS RESISTED GOD’S WILL?

So God has mercy upon whom He will have mercy and whom He wills, He hardens. But when I tell people that this is how God operates, they find fault with it. They say that isn’t fair. They say we are mere puppets if this is the way God operates. How can God blame and punish people for doing what God Himself caused them to do in the first place? The Apostle Paul got the same carnal-minded criticisms of God’s plan:

"You will say then unto me, why does He [God] yet find fault? For who has resisted His will [Gk: boulema—‘resolve, purpose, a deliberate intention’]?" (Rom. 9:19).

This is an amazing Scripture. This Scripture shows the difference in attitude between those who understand God’s plan and will and those who do not.

After explaining to the Romans that God raised Pharaoh up for a specific purpose in God’s plan, Paul foresees the attitudes of his listeners. They will reason that if God is the One behind our actions, and we are totally incapable of doing other than what He determines we will do, then WHY DOES HE FIND FAULT WITH US WHEN WE SIN?

First it is most important that we look at and understand the word translated "will" in Rom. 9:19. It is not the usually Greek word, which is translated "will" hundreds of times in the New Testament. This Greek word boulema is used but twice in the Bible, here in Rom. 9:19 and in Acts 27:43 where it is translated "purpose."

So the question that Paul is setting up is not "…who has resisted His will?" but rather, "who has resisted His purpose [His plan, His intention]?"

God has a will and God has a plan and purpose to reach that will. And no small part of reaching His desired will is to set men against His will, just as He did with Pharaoh. But no one has ever hindered God’s plan and purpose in reaching that goal and stated will. God’s will, will be done in His time.

So back to Paul’s questioners: If God causes us to do what we do, and no one ever has or ever can go against or resist that purpose of God, why does He blame us when we sin? And again, I will let Paul answer, since the question was directed to him. But you know what? Paul does not even deign to answer their question. That’s right; Paul proposes the question and then does not directly answer it. He considers the very question itself too demeaning, if not blasphemous to answer. Instead He says this:

"Nay but, O man, WHO ARE YOU that replies against God? Shall the thing formed [that’s us] say to Him that formed it, [that’s GOD] why have you made me thus? Has not the Potter [GOD] power over the clay [man] of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour and another unto dishonour?" (Rom. 9:20-21)

GOD IS THE POTTER AND WE ARE THE POT

Could anything be plainer? God, the Potter, does not owe an explanation to the pot as to why He made the pot the way He desired! And God desires to make some pots honourable and some pots dishonourable. Why? Because He is a mean and nasty God No, because He has a plan, a purpose, intentions, to save all humanity in the end; that IS THE "WILL" OF GOD. And if you will continue reading chapters 10 and 11 of Romans, you will plainly see that those who are lost along the way in God’s plan will all be saved in the end.

What is the conclusion of THE WHOLE MATTER? How good of a Potter is God? Will He have to destroy most of His pots for all eternity? If God is the Potter and we are the pot, how can the pot be responsible for ANYTHING? Can a pot be responsible for anything?

GOD NEVER CHANGES

But doesn’t God change the way He operates from time to time with regards to man’s will? Let God’s Word answer:

"And as a vesture shall Thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but THOU ART THE SAME…" (Heb. 1:12).

"For I am the Lord, I CHANGE NOT…" (Mal. 3:6).

"Jesus Christ the SAME yesterday, and today, and forever" (Heb. 13:8).

Now, had God supernaturally strengthened Peter’s resolve to remain loyal despite the tremendous fear to give in, he would have remained loyal, because the greater power will always be dominant. And since God is ALL mighty and ALL-powerful He can ALWAYS dominate.

Before conversion Peter thought he possessed free will:

"Peter answered and said unto Him, Though all men shall be offended because of you, YET WILL I NEVER BE OFFENDED" (Matt. 26:33).

Jesus responded that Peter had no more freedom of the will to stick by such a statement than a donkey:

"Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, That this night, before the cock crow, YOU SHALL DENY ME thrice" (Vs. 34).

Peter again responds from the pinnacle of his presumed free will and CORRECTS Jesus to His face:

"Peter said unto Him, Though I should DIE WITH THEE, YET WILL I NOT DENY THEE. Likewise also said ALL THE DISCIPLES" (Vs. 35)

And the rest is history. When Peter was confronted the third time we read this:

"Then began he to curse and to swear, saying, I KNOW NOT THE MAN. And immediately the cock crew… And he went out, and wept bitterly" (Matt. 26:74 & 75b) Free will? Where? Give it up.

"But all this was done, that the Scriptures of the prophets might be fulfilled. Then ALL THE DISCIPLES FORSOOK HIM, AND FLED" (Matt. 26:56).

"Free Will" DEFINED

The American Heritage College Dictionary:

"Free will n. 1 The ability or discretion to choose; free choice 2. The power of making free choices that are unconstrained by external circumstances or by an agency such as fate or divine will."

My Meriam-Webster Collegiate Dictionary/Eleventh Edition has an even more precise definition:

"Free will n. freedom of humans to make choices that are not determined by prior causes or by divine intervention"

Notice that our dictionaries are specific in stating that it is "FREE choice" that is the definition of "free will," rather than just "choice" alone. To be an expression of "free will," choices must also be free. Free from what? We just read it:

• Free from "PRIOR CAUSES."
• Free from "CONSTRAINT."
• Free from "EXTERNAL CIRCUMSTANCES."
• Free from "FATE."
• Free from "DIVINE WILL."
• Free from "DIVINE INTERVENTION."

Now then, will anyone contend that computers have unprogrammed and uncaused, free wills? So now we have proof that making choices is not the same as "free will."

Computers do not have "free wills," yet THEY CAN MAKE CHOICES, but those choices are anything but free. Their choices are all a matter of PRE-programming. They cannot think and act independently of "causes." Neither can man think or do anything outside of the realm of "causes." In order for an effect to be present, there must first be a cause, and once something is caused, the effect must follow, and neither could have been prevented.

IN THE BEGINNING/IN THE GARDEN

What was the first historically recorded choice of our first parents? We read of Mother Eve that:

"…she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat…" (Gen. 3:6).

It is generally taught that Adam and Eve were spiritually perfect immediately after their creation, seeing that it says,

"And God saw everything that He had made, and, behold, it was very good…" (Gen. 1:31).

Never mind the fact that even poisonous snakes were also "very good." Of course everything God made was "good." It was, in fact, even "perfect"—perfect, that is, for the purpose for which it was created.

But did our first parents have perfect and good spiritual character of heart when God completed them? Absolutely not! Far from it! They were as carnal-minded as any two people who have ever lived.

THREE CATEGORIES OF SIN

"Love NOT the world, neither the things that are in the world. If any man love the world, the love of the Father IS NOT IN HIM. For ALL that is in the world,

1. the lust of the FLESH,
2. the lust of the EYES,
3. and the pride of LIFE,

is not of the Father, but is of the world.

And the world passes away, and the lust thereof: but he that does the will of God abides forever" (I John 2:15-17).

Notice that "…ALL that is in the world…"—all the sins of the world have their origin in one of these three categories of sin that proceeds "out of THE HEART." Not out of the "will" or out of the "mind," but "out of THE HEART." The "will" and the "mind" are subject to the "heart," and not the other way around. The heart is not subject to the will, neither is the heart subject to the mind, but rather both of these are subject to the birthplace of all human functions—the HEART!

Simply and unarguably, Jesus states as a fact, that all evil thoughts and sins proceed OUT OF THE HEART.

"And when the woman saw that the tree was GOOD FOR FOOD… Gen. 3:6

1. "…lust of the FLESH…" (I John 2:15)
   
   and that it was PLEASANT TO THE EYES… Gen. 3:6
2. "…lust of the EYES…" (I John 2:15)
   
   and a tree to be DESIRED TO MAKE ONE WISE Gen. 3:6
3. "…the PRIDE OF LIFE" (I John 2;15)

Eve committed EVERY CATEGORY OF SIN THERE IS IN THE WORLD, before… BEFORE she actually ate of the forbidden fruit;

ALL of Eve’s evil thoughts of pride, vanity, lust, greed, disobedience, and finally thievery proceeded NOT from Eve’s supposed "free will," but rather from out of her HEART. And the only reason these sins could come out of her heart is because THEY WERE ALREADY IN THERE FROM THE BEGINNING. BEFORE Eve actually ate of the forbidden fruit, she committed every category of sin in the world. And need I remind us that we were also, ALL IN ADAM, before he ate of the tree (I Cor. 15:22). Will we deny our own eyes and the Scriptures we have just read?

IT IS IMPOSSIBLE TO UN-RING A BELL

Whatever that HAS HAPPENED HAD TO HAPPEN; The CAUSES of all happenings, MADE all of the effects come into existence. Nothing that has a cause can ever be stopped, for if the cause could be stopped, the effect would have never happened, and we would not have the existence of any such cause to even be talking about in the first place. Now then, if ALL effects are the result of "something," namely a "cause," bringing about the effect, what brings about the "cause" OF the "effect?" …LAWS CAUSETH EVERYTHING!!

GOD CAUSES LAWS

"In the beginning GOD created the heavens and the earth." (Gen. 1:1).

Man can "create" nothing—not even a thought.

"Through faith we understand that the worlds [ages] were framed [prepared] by the Word of God, so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear [are visible]" (Heb. 11:3).

Invisible things are nonetheless REAL.

Now for maybe the most profound and all-encompassing statements in all Scripture:

"In Whom [GOD] also we have obtained [‘obtained’ not ‘earned’] an inheritance, being PREDESTINATED [our ‘destiny’ was ‘pre’ arranged by God, not us] according to the PURPOSE OF HIM [not the free will, OF US!] Who WORKS ALL THINGS [EVERY-thing] AFTER THE COUNSEL OF HIS OWN WILL [not OUR OWN WILL]" (Eph. 1:11)……where is the free will??? People of GOD wake up from slumber!!!!!

BACK TO MOTHER EVE

Was it Eve’s will from the beginning ("free will" or otherwise), that she would eat the forbidden fruit? No, it wasn’t. Let’s read it:

"Now the serpent was more subtle [cunning] than any beast of the field which the Lord God had made. And he said unto the woman, Yea, has God said, Ye [you and your husband] shall not eat of every tree of the garden?

And the woman said unto the serpent, We may eat of the fruit of the trees of the garden:

But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God has said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die."

Eve was not yet deceived: she was not as yet caused to disobey God. She set the serpent straight by telling him that his statement wasn’t completely true. They could eat of all of the fruit in the garden EXCEPT ONE. Eve was okay with that commandment from God. Well why did she then eat of the forbidden fruit? WHAT CHANGED?

Did Eve’s "heart" change? No, she had the same heart she was created with.

Did Eve’s "mind" change? Yes it did.

Did Eve’s "will" change? Yes, of course it did.

Even though Eve had a deceitful heart, there was something else that CAUSED her to change her mind and her will regarding the forbidden fruit. The Apostle Paul plainly tells us what CAUSED Eve to change her mind and her will. Eve did not "freely" will to sin. Her choice to sin was not "free" from an external cause. IT WAS CAUSED, and when something is CAUSED to happen, it could not have been "free" to NOT HAPPEN.

"But I fear, lest by any means, AS the serpent BEGUILED [Gk: ‘DECEIVED’] Eve through HIS subtlety [craftiness]…" (II Cor. 11:3).

Where does anyone see one single word here to the effect that Eve deceived HERSELF, or caused HERSELF to sin, or "freely" willed HERSELF into a different frame of mind WITHOUT A CAUSE?

WHAT CAUSED EVE TO SIN WILLINGLY?

Did Eve herself think that she "freely" willed to sin WITHOUT A CAUSE?

"And the Lord God said unto the woman, What is this that you have done? And the woman said [Yes, just what did ‘the woman say?’ Did she say that she "freely willed" to commit this sin? Did she say it was her and all her and nothing but her that did this? Or did she say…], The SERPENT BEGUILED ME… [and BECAUSE the serpent beguiled or deceived her, we now have a CAUSE], and I did eat" (Gen. 3:13).

And what did God have to save about all this blame casting on Eve’s part?

 Let’s read it:

"And the Lord God said unto the serpent, because YOU HAVE DONE THIS, you are cursed above all cattle…" (Vs. 14)

There it is. God’s Own answer. But will we accept God’s answer? For most, probably no,

God plainly said that it was the serpent that "has done this." Eve said it was the serpent that deceived her and God Himself also conceded that it was the serpent that "has done this." That was the CAUSE, and that was the reason for the serpent’s punishment.

WHAT CAUSED ADAM TO SIN WILLINGLY?

How about Adam? Does he fare any better than his wife? Did Adam eat the forbidden fruit and sin by his OWN “FREE WILL”? Or do the Scriptures tell us that he too was CAUSED to have his will do what he did?

"And the man said, THE WOMAN whom You gave to be with me, SHE GAVE ME OF THE TREE, and I did eat" (Vs. 12)

And again, did God say something like" "Oh sure, Adam, blame it on your WIFE! You know that you ‘freely’ without any outside cause whatsoever, decided on your own to eat the fruit." Is that what God intonated to Adam? Let’s read it:

"And unto Adam He said, because [‘because’—here is the real CAUSE] YOU HAVE HEARKENED UNTO THE VOICE OF YOUR WIFE, and have eaten of the tree …" (Vs. 17).

Does anyone see here where God says, "Because you have hearkened unto the voice of our OWN “FREE WILL”, and have eaten of the true…?" Well? No, before Adam "willed" (and NOT FREELY), but willed to eat of this fruit, his heart was influenced to do something that it already had all the potential in the world of doing. Namely, disobeying His God and Maker, and what was that? HIS WIFE’S VOICE, and at THAT point in the process, Adam began to "will" this act, and his mind formulated the actual physical action of doing the eating.

You see, Adam was willing to die for his new bride, just as Jesus was willing to die for His bride, the church.

God doesn’t even hint that Adam did what he did "freely." God Himself admits that the CAUSE was "the VOICE OF YOUR WIFE."

God never FORCED anyone to sin or go against whatever their will is at the precise time that his will is changed by a cause. Men volunteer to sin. They don’t need to be "forced"—they (we) are SINNING MACHINES! Most men (not all) can be made to sin at the drop of a photograph. (That is, if the photograph is that of a sexy young lady in high heels and a mini-skirt). He doesn’t need to be ‘FORCED’ to lust and sin over the young lady, even though it may not have been his conscious will TO LUST just prior to seeing the sexy photograph.

Who created man with such passions and desires? Who created Testosterone?

IT ALL STARTS WITH THE HEART

ALL have sinned because it takes SPIRITUAL POWER not to sin. And God did not give our first parents that kind of spiritual power. They were spiritually weak as water.

We read in Jer. 17:9:

"The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked: who can know it?"

We know from Scripture that God "…creates EVIL…" (Isa. 45:7), but did He also create man’s heart in a "desperately wicked" state? No, He did not. God did not FORCE upon man, at creation, a "desperately WICKED" heart. Let’s read this verse from the Jewish Publication Society Bible,

"The heart is deceitful above all things, and it is EXCEEDING WEAK—who can know it."

God did not create man’s heart "desperately wicked" as the KJV suggests, but rather He did create the human heart, "exceeding WEAK."

From the NAS Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible with Hebrew-Aramaic and Greek Dictionaries the word translated WICKED as in KJV is  “anash” in Hebrew which means  to be WEAK or SICK

Desperate (-ly wicked) is used by KJV as a figurative word and does not give us a proper understanding of the message, most translators including KJV has based the second line of the verse upon the first line “The heart is deceitful above all things” therefore is WICKED.

The seat of emotions and desires is the HEART. And God made the heart "exceeding WEAK." Man did not sin because he "freely willed" to sin, but because his heart was so exceedingly WEAK. That is why it takes next to nothing to persuade the heart of man to DESIRE SIN.

Once the heart senses a feeling or emotion, it begins to desire something. These very thoughts of desire come from the heart, seeking fulfillment. At this point in the process the will is manifested. It now becomes the driving force within you to accomplish the thoughts and emotions of the heart. The will is not the original instigator in this chain of events; it is not even the second in line, but rather the third.

• The will of man has no power until first his heart DESIRES,
• Second these desires are formed into actual THOUGHTS,
• Then at this third stage the will purposes to find fulfillment for all that is coming out of the heart.

The heart played a huge role in Adam’s decision to also partake of the forbidden fruit.

1 Tim. 2:14 "And Adam was NOT deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression (a crime or any act that violates a law)."

Why did Adam sin if he was NOT deceived as his wife was? Again, the answer goes back to THE HEART.

Adam LOVED his wife dearly. He never wanted to be separated from her. But he knew that the wages of eating the forbidden tree was to be death. But did he fully comprehend all that death entailed? Probably not, But whatever the penalty would be or how it would be carried out, Adam knew that he did not want to be separated from his wife. Notice what He said to God:

"And the man said, the woman whom you gave to be WITH ME, she gave me of the tree, and I did eat." (Gen. 3:12)

Isn’t that interesting? Adam did not say: "The woman whom you gave TO ME." Or, "The woman whom you gave FOR ME," But rather, "The woman whom you gave to be WITH ME," Adam reminded God that He created Eve to be ‘WITH’ him, not apart from him. And if Adam had obeyed God, whereas his wife did not, he feared being SEPARATED from Eve. And so he also ate of the fruit and sinned, not because he was deceived as Eve was, but because he loved her in his heart so much that he couldn’t bear the thought of not being "WITH" her.

And so, did Adam "freely" WITHOUT A CAUSE choose to eat the forbidden fruit? What nonsense. Adam had the BIGGEST REASON in the world that CAUSED him to sin and remain with his wife!

So if you are looking for "free" will in the Garden at the time of our first parents' creation, forget it, 'cause it ain’t there!

                    SUBJECTED TO VANITY NOT WILLINGLY                   

"For the creature [Gk: ‘creation’] was made [put under, subordinate to, to obey] subject to vanity [Gk: ‘futility’], not willingly, but by reason of Him Who has subjected the same in hope." Romans 8:20

WOW! What have we here? Free will? I think not. Pay close attention to the words that God inspired:

• "WAS MADE"—This is an ACT or CAUSE of God: Not of man’s will.
• "SUBJECT TO VANITY"—CAUSED by God: Not man’s choice.
• "NOT WILLINGLY"—According to God’s will: Not man’s will.
• "BY REASON OF HIM"—By reason of GOD: Not by reason of man.
• "WHO HAS SUBJECTED"—Subjected by GOD: Not chosen by man.

So where is the "free" will in all this? There is no free will in all this!

Notice verse 21:

"Because the creature [Gk: ‘creation’] itself also shall be delivered from THE BONDAGE OF CORRUPTION into the glorious liberty of the children of God."

Lets read this scripture:                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                

"Then said Pilate unto Him, Speak you not unto me? Know you not that I HAVE POWER to crucify you, and have POWER TO RELEASE YOU? Jesus answered,

You could have NO POWER AT ALL against Me, except it were GIVEN YOU from above…" (John 19:10-11).

THE SOURCE OF ALL POWER

What do we learn from these verses? Are we to believe that for this particular event (the Crucifixion of our Lord), God supernaturally supplied Pilate with the power to perform his dirty work? Is that what we learn?

Pilate already KNEW that he possessed power—he told Jesus he possessed this power. He possessed it for some time, that’s how Pilate was sure that this power was available to him whenever he needed it. But from where did Jesus say Pilate’s power came from? "…from ABOVE." It ALWAYS COMES FROM ABOVE.

So, what about the ruler before Pilate? Did he have power? Where did that power come from? "…from ABOVE." And what about the neighboring cities, states, powers, countries and kingdoms,? Where did THEIR power come from? "…from ABOVE." Where has all the power of every city, state, and nation, farm, company, household, and individual who has ever lived, come from? "…from ABOVE.

Where does all power in heaven and earth come from? "…from ABOVE." Therefore, man is subject to the power that enables him to do things, and as we have already seen, man has no power to do anything except what God has already determined that he WILL DO, and MUST DO.

"There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death" (Rom. 8:1-2)

Notice that one law frees us from another law, but we still remain under some law. All unconverted carnal-minded humanity is under "the LAW of sin and death." That law controls the unregenerate man. And he cannot, of his own will, break the controls of that law. That law will control him until he dies or unless God intervenes with a different offsetting law, namely, "the law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus." But when we are made free, does that mean that we then have "free will?"

"If the Son therefore shall make you free, ye shall be free indeed" (John 8:36).

 ONLY THE SPIRIT CAN CAUSE THE CARNAL MIND TO REPENT

The carnal mind is a mind debarred (disqualified) of spiritual understanding. Not only does it not understand spiritual things; it is an impossibility to do so. The carnal mind cannot spiritually repent. Therefore it is not "free." It is in fact, enslaved to sin. No "slave" is "free." Let’s learn a few very basic Truths:

1. "God [is] SPIRIT" (John 4:24).
2. "…the Words that I speak unto you are SPIRIT…" (John 6:63).
3. "Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the SPIRIT which is of God; that we might know the things that are freely given to us of God.
   
   Which things also we speak, not in the words which man’s wisdom teaches, but which the Holy SPIRIT teaches; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.
   
   But the natural man [still being carnal-minded] receives not the things of the SPIRIT of God: neither CAN HE know them, because they are spiritually discerned" (I Cor. 2:12-14).

Clearly, the natural mind of man unaided by the Spirit of God, is not "free" to receive "the things of the Spirit of God, neither CAN HE KNOW THEM…"

God is SPIRIT and the words of Christ are SPIRIT. To understand these words we must have the Spirit, which is of God. We can then "compare" or (Greek: "match") spiritual with spiritual, and understand.

If we have the Spirit of God we can do this. But if we are carnal-minded and have not the Spirit of God, we cannot do this. Here is why:

"Because the carnal mind is enmity [hatred] against God: for it is NOT subject to the [spiritual] law of God, neither indeed CAN BE" (Rom. 8:7).

Did Jesus obey His God and Father, without a cause?

"Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, [truly, truly—what Jesus is about to say is the Gospel Truth!] I say unto you, THE SON CAN DO NOTHING OF HIMSELF…" (John 5:19).

"THE SON CAN DO NOTHING OF HIMSELF"

Can we obey our Lord Jesus Christ, without a cause?

"I am the Vine, ye are the branches: He that abides in Me, and I in him, the same brings forth much fruit, for WITHOUT ME YE CAN DO NOTHING" (John 15:5).

Where then is the "freedom of will" and "freedom of choice" in these two statements of God’s Word? They are nowhere. There is no such thing. They don’t exist. The theory of "free moral agency" is one of the foolish and stupid wisdoms of this world and is no different to the theory evolution, Trinity and the others preached in Christendom, WE CAN LEARN COMMON SENSE FROM THE BIBLE… SO LONG AS THE APOSTLES NEVER EVER PREACHED ON A SUBJECT THAT IS BEING PREACHED OR PRACTICE TODAY, THEN ONE MUST BE CAREFUL.

                        

LIMITED FREE WILL

The free will scholars themselves have had to re-adjust their theory in the light of obvious scientific and Scriptural proof against free will. They assure us that although man does not possess total free will, he does, nonetheless, possess "limited free will." That is, man’s will is limited, but within those limits, the will is completely and totally free. Oh really?

Here is how my Twentieth Century Webster’s Dictionary defines "limited, a. restricted" (Page 963). And here is how this same dictionary defines "free, a. without restriction" (Page 682). Got it? "Limited" means: RESTRICTED, and "free" means: WITHOUT RESTRICTION.

So scholarly theologians would have us believe that man possesses a will that is, "RESTRICTED WITHOUT RESTRICTION." What? Does anyone see a problem with this limited free will theory? Does the word "contradiction" come to mind?

THE SCRIPTURAL PROCESS OF CONVERSION

The truth of conversion is a simple one, if we believe the Scriptures and don’t try to bring it about by some phantom free will. It is all of God.

How do the Scriptures say we become converted? Does an ounce of "free will" enter into the conversion process according to the Scriptures?

1. "Or despise you the riches of HIS goodness [‘His goodness;’ not our free will] and forbearance and longsuffering; not knowing that the goodness of God LEADS [God’s ‘leading’ is the CAUSE] you to repentance?" (Rom. 2:4). Where is the ‘free will’ in this statement? "God LEADS…" is the cause of repentance, not free will.
    
2. "No man CAN come to Me, except the Father which has sent Me draw [Gk: ‘drag’] him: and I will raise him up at the last day" (John 6:44). This verse is plain: "No man CAN…" come to Christ of his own will. It is the Father "dragging" him that is the cause of one coming to Christ, not his own supposed free will.
    
3. "You have not chosen Me, but I HAVE CHOSEN YOU…" (John 15:16). "I have CHOSEN you…" is the CAUSE and it is by Christ’s will, not man’s will.
    
4. "I am crucified with Christ, nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ lives in me; and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith OF the Son of God [not faith ‘IN’ the Son of God, but the very faith ‘OF’ the Son of God—it is His faith, not ours until He gives us some of it] Who loved me, and gave Himself for me" (Gal. 2:20). It is not by the ‘free will’ of our faith that we live, but by the faith OF Jesus.
5. "I am the Vine, ye are the branches: He that abides in Me, and I in him, the same brings forth much fruit, for without ME YE CAN DO NOTHING" (John 15:5). According to God’s Word, what is it that we can do by our own will? Answer: "NOTHING." It is Christ "IN him" that brings forth much fruit. Man does not bring forth much fruit by his fabled free will.
    
6. "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that [‘that faith’] not of yourselves [NOT of your own faith or will] it is the gift of God. Not of works, lest any man should boast. For we are HIS workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God has before ordained that we should walk in them" (Eph. 2:8-10).
   
   Man’s will is not free. Man has a will, but it is not free from the causes that make it do what it does.

"For it is God [who?‘GOD’] which works in you both TO WILL and TO DO of His good pleasure" (Phil. 2:13)

According to Christendom, this verse is a fraud. We are taught that, "It is OUR OWN FREE WILL that works IN us both TO WILL and TO DO of His good pleasure." But no, it is God Who works in us both to will

FREE INDEED

In the book of John 6:36:

"If the Son therefore shall MAKE you free, ye shall be free indeed."

I said that this verse has nothing to do with free will. But it certainly does have to do with freedom, But freedom from what? From what is it that Jesus frees us? Why free from what we were in bondage to before He freed us, of course.

"…..Because the creature itself also shall be delivered [freed] from the bondage of corruption into the glorious liberty of the children of God" Rom. 8:20-21

The whole creation will be delivered from this bondage one day. But until then, only those destined to become the manifest sons of God receive this deliverance.

Here is the same thought in slightly different words

"For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has made me free [here is this ‘cause and effect’ thing again] from the law of sin and death" Rom. 8:2

No one can "freely" change his will from hating and disobeying God on one day to loving and obeying God on the next. No, it takes a supernatural miracle from God to accomplish this. God must personally remove and free [here is the cause] us from being under the "Law of sin and death" to being under the "Law of the Spirit of life in Christ."

ONLY GOD DELIVERS FROM BONDAGE

Exodus 6:6-8 Wherefore say unto the children of Israel, I am the LORD, and I will bring you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians, and I will rid you out of their bondage, and I will redeem you with a stretched out arm, and with great judgments: And I will take you to me for a people, and I will be to you a God: and ye shall know that I am the LORD your God, which brought you out from under the burdens of the Egyptians.  And I will bring you in unto the land, concerning which I did swear to give it to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob; and I will give it to you for an heritage: I am the LORD.

Not only can we NOT deliver ourselves from sin; we CANNOT even truly repent of our sins by our own will. This too requires a MIRACLE from God.

Repentance is not predicated upon the "free will" of man, but on the will of God. We have already cited this verse that we will now examine more closely.

"Or despise you the riches of His goodness and forbearance and longsuffering; not knowing that the goodness of God leads you to repentance? Rom. 2:4

What leads us to repentance? The goodness of our illusionary God-given "free will" NO, "…the GOODNESS OF GOD…" But can the carnal, natural, unconverted mind of man appreciate God’s goodness and then repent by his own will? No, absolutely not…

This is the one and only time in the whole Bible that the Greek word ago is translated as "leadeth." If you check Wigram’s Englishman’s Greek Concordance of the New Testament, you will find that this Greek word ago is translated into much stronger words than "leadeth." Dozens and dozens of times ago is translated as bring or brought. The word, in fact, also means to drive. (Remember that in John 6:44 the Father "draws" [Gk: ‘drags’] us to Christ?)

Yes, repentance is a process, but it is the goodness of God that does the actual bringing us to and bringing about of our repentance.

JESUS CHRIST DID NOT POSSES FREE WILL

The theory of free will argues that anyone possessing this God-defying power can freely choose his own course in life by making his own decisions and choices that are CAUSED by nothing or no one. Every free-willer is said to have the power to do or not do, to think or not think, anything they wish, without anything causing them to do contrariwise. So surely Jesus possessed this power as well, did He not?

Here is a blanket statement of Scripture that proves Jesus did no more have a "free will" than anyone else does:

"Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son CAN DO NOTHING OF HIMSELF, but what He sees the Father do: for what things so ever He does, these also does the Son likewise" John 5:19.

Do you know of one Scripture that contradicts this verse in John 5:19? If you don’t then you must admit that Jesus could not do anything by a supposed "free will" which is said to have the ability to act independently of God.

God MADE Jesus go through that spiritual battle of His will, but never for a second was the plan of God in jeopardy! God had clearly prophesied the positive outcome of this battle hundreds of years before its actual occurrence. And absolutely nothing in the history of the universe has ever thwarted God’s plan, purpose or intention.

The Father inspired [caused, made] Jesus state time after time, "Not My will but Thine, Not My will but Thine, NOT MY WILL BUT THINE"!!

And so the very words that Jesus prayed that night in the garden were the very words of His Father, and the words of His Father of the purpose for which they were sent.

When there is a conflict between wills regarding the bringing about of that which pleases God, whose will is it that will always win out? Is it possible for man’s will to thwart the will and intention of God? Does man possess such a God-defying power? Can man with his illusionary free will, will against and contrary to the predetermined plan and intention of God Almighty? No! No, he can’t. And yes, we do have a Scripture on that:

"For it is GOD which works in you both TO WILL and TO DO of His good pleasure" Phil. 2:13

When our very own Lord cried out in agony to His Father because His flesh did not want to go through the crucifixion necessary because of the sin of the world, whose will prevailed?

"And He said, Abba, Father, all things are possible unto you; take away this cup from Me: nevertheless not what I will, but what YOU WILL" Mark 14:36-41

"I can of mine own self DO NOTHING: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the father which has sent Me" John 5:30

"For I came down from heaven, not to do Mine Own will, but the will of Him that sent me" John 6:38

It is hard to even imagine that some will not get this point:

"Jesus said unto them, My meat is TO DO THE WILL OF HIM THAT SENT ME, and to finish His work" John 4:34

Jesus didn’t even speak His own words:

" Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I DO NOTHING OF MYSELF: but as My Father has taught Me, I speak these things" John 8:28. John 12:49

"Believe you not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? The words that I speak unto you, I speak not of myself, but the Father that dwells in Me, He does the works" John 14:10

"He that loves Me not keeps not My sayings: and the word which ye hear is NOT MINE, but the Father’s which sent Me" John 14:24

It is GOD who does the working of the clay. The clay does not determine its own destiny that is the POTTER’S job

"Nay but, O man, who are you that replies against God? Shall the thing formed [we, the clay] say to Him that formed it [God, the Potter], Why have You made me thus? Has not the Potter power over the clay [and the clay’s powerless imagined ‘free will’], of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour" Rom. 9:20-21

.It is God Who has always done all the doing, whether physical or spiritual in nature. ALL IS OF GOD:

"In Whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose OF HIM Who works ALL things after the counsel of His OWN will" (Eph. 1:11).

How spiritually stubborn can we possibly be? I’ll tell you: As stubborn as God as predetermined and predestinated and purposed for us to be. But for those few whom God is calling to salvation by the "foolishness of preaching," let’s take a closer look at how things are done according to God.

ALL that we have, we have obtained from God. Not one thing have we obtained by our own presumed freedom of will. Can we take credit for anything that we have? Is our own will, independent of God’s will responsible for obtaining anything? Answer:

"For who makes you to differ from another, And what have you that you did not RECEIVE [Gk: ‘OBTAIN’]? [from God] now if you did receive it [from God], why do you glory [Gk: ‘boast’], AS IF YOU HAD NOT RECEIVED IT [from God, but rather of your own ‘free’ will]?" I Cor. 4:7

Since it is a Scriptural fact and truth that no one ever has received or obtained anything aside from it being given to him of God, why does all of Christendom boast of their achievements as though they were not gifts from God straight out of heaven, but rather the results of their own clever resourcefulness.

"EVERY good gift and EVERY perfect gift is FROM ABOVE, and comes down FROM THE FATHER OF LIGHTS, with Whom is no variableness, neither shadow of turning [in other words of Scripture: ‘I CHANGE NOT…’]" James 1:17

"O Lord, I know that the way of man is NOT IN HIMSELF [not in his will or choice] it is not in man that walks to direct his steps [he is not ‘free’ to choice where he will walk]" Jer. 10:23.  READ (Prov. 16:1).

I have the next topic as a full separate letter but I will still have to add it to this lake of fire series to make it complete. So those of you that have already study it don’t have to read GOD THE CREATOR OF EVIL, just jump to the next chapter.

GOD THE CREATOR OF EVIL

“That they may know from the rising of the sun, and from the west, that there is none beside Me. I am the Lord, and there is none else. I form the light, and create darkness: I made peace [good], and create evil: I the Lord do all these things” (Isa. 45:6-7).

Notice that God did not create light to shine IN the darkness. No, God “created” darkness, itself. Darkness is not just the absence of light. Darkness was created by God. It does not “naturally” exist independent of His creating it. This, like everything else in the Bible, is a parable. Mankind is spiritually in “darkness.”   And it is a very painful thing to come out.

“For God, Who commanded the light to shine out of darkness [not ‘in’ darkness], has shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ. But we have this treasure in earthen vessels that the Excellency of the power may be of God, and not of us.” (II Cor. 4:6).

Before we go further, it is necessary for those who have never seen it proven, that it is God Who is the Creator, User, and ultimately, the Destroyer of evil.

Most Christians say that the word “evil” in this verse should be translated “calamity” That is decidedly a fabricated assertion. Would the Christmas tsunami in Indonesia or the earthquake in Haiti have wreaked less havoc had it been a “calamity” rather than an “evil?” What would be gained by calling “evils” by the name “calamities”?

Nevertheless, let it be known that the word translated “evil” in Isaiah 45:7 is the Hebrew word ra. The Hebrew word for “calamity” is the Hebrew word ade which means “misfortune, misery, or ruin. Whereas the Hebrew word ra means “bad or evil” It is the same word used for the “tree of the knowledge of good and evil, ra.” It was not the tree of the knowledge of “good and calamity.”  Did Jacob really mean to say, “a calamitous beast” had devoured his son? (Gen. 37:33) Did Israel really “do calamity in the sight of God” by worshipping Balaam, or did they do evil? (Jude. 3:7)?

The Hebrew ra means “bad or evil” and it is used over four hundred times to represent bad or evil, not calamity. WAKE UP CHRISTIANS!

God created ra—EVIL. Furthermore God used evil and continues to use evil against His creatures all day long.

THE PURPOSE FOR WHICH GOD CREATED EVIL

This is all the strange work of God. There is no free will about it. We are all born out of a dark womb into the natural light of day, but this too is but a parable. We must be “born again” out of spiritual darkness of this age into the glorious light of the Sun of God. It is a painful journey, and requires an experience of evil to accomplish.

“And I gave my heart to seek and search out by wisdom concerning all things that are done under heaven: this sore travail has God given to the sons of man to be exercised therewith” Ecclesiastes 1:13

What a horrible translation! My King James has three superior numbers in this one verse indicating three different words in the margin. Especially the last phrase:

“…this sore travail has God given to the sons of man to be exercised therewith.”

What pray tell does that mean? One of the most all-encompassing and profound verses in all Scripture, and most translations butcher it beyond understanding.

NEW AMERICAN BIBLE: “A thankless task God has appointed for men to be busied about.”

JEWISH PUBLICATION SOCIETY: “…it is a sore task that God has given to the sons of man to be exercised therewith.”

NEW INTERNATIONAL VERSION:   “What a heavy burden God has laid on men!”

YOUNG’S LITERAL TRANSLATION: “It is a sad travail God has given to the son of man to be humbled by it.”

This is really an important verse; we have got to get it right. Young’s Translation gets a little closer to the truth than the KJV or the previous three references. He got the humbled part right. But what is all this “sad travail,” “heavy burden,” “thankless task,” business all about? It is not that difficult if we will just look at the Hebrew words:

Eccl. 1:13 from the King James:

First, the word “this” may be better translated “it,” as some have done.

But far, far more important than all, the word “sore” should be translated “EVIL” as almost none have done. It is the Hebrew word ra which always means “EVIL,” and is translated as “evil” in hundreds and hundreds of other verses. Why not in this verse? The few times that ra is translated “sore” in the KJV; it ALWAYS means “evil” as in “evil sickness” or “evil troubles.” SO WHY SORE NOW??

The word “travail” in the KJV is not out of line with the Hebrew, but is nebulous and not easily understood by most. It would better translated as “employment” or “experience.”

And we have already seen from other versions that the KJV “exercised” is better translated “humbled” as Young’s and Concordant has done.

Here then is a proper translation of this most profound verse:

“It is an experience of evil Elohim [God] has given to the sons of humanity to humble them by it” (Concordant Old Testament).

Now we can easily understand what is being said in this verse.

This “experience of evil” is not the purpose or goal of human existence, but this is indeed the process by which God is bringing His Sons and Daughters into glory! Most translations have hidden the meaning of this verse of Scripture. The translators just couldn’t believe that God would do such a thing. They see it all around them. They see it in thousands of Scriptures, but they just couldn’t bring themselves to come right out and say it, as God obviously has stated in the original Hebrew of this verse.

“It is an EXPERIENCE of EVIL that God has given to the sons of humanity to HUMBLE them by it.”

And to this agrees the rest of Scripture:

“For ALL his days are SORROWS, and his travail [experience] GRIEF…”  (Eccl. 2:23).

The destiny of the human race is indeed GLORIOUS, but the journey is filled with evil and sorrow. This is not to say that there are not many beautiful and good things in life, but for most the misery far far outweighs the pleasurable.

All of such things are examples of evil. God created evil for a purpose. So naturally He will not make evil inoperative at every turn in the road or there would have been no purpose in creating it in the first place.

Evil serves many noble purposes. One of which is a back drop for good. Good cannot be understood or certainly not appreciated without a backdrop of evil. Evil makes good appear even better and is certainly much more appreciated.

Evil is necessary for the production or development of good.  You cannot name one virtue that is not in some way produced by the resistance to some form of evil.

All knowledge is matter of contrast and relativity. One cannot know what light is unless he has been acquainted with darkness.  One has no conception of large unless he also knows of things that are small. Up is only up in relation to down. Life is the opposite of death, etc. To understand and fully appreciate all of these things, there are many necessary experiences to go through. God creates and puts us through these many things in the development of godly character.

All of these evils can be likened to the creation of a beautiful building. Ugly scaffolding is necessary in the construction of this building. It is ugly and serves no purpose other than in the actual construction of the building. When the building is completed, the scaffolding is torn down and discarded. It serves no further purpose. All evil will be discarded one day. And the last enemy, DEATH, will likewise be ABOLISHED FOR EVER (I Cor. 15:26) and God will "ALL in All"!!!

JOB’S TRIAL ANSWERS MANY ENIGMAS

Who was responsible for Job’s trial? Was it Satan, Job OR God? Are “calamities” better than “evils?” Can Satan operate independently of God? Does God use evil for good? Is it a sin to hold God responsible for all the evil in the world?

Job was a man who feared God and eschewed [shunned] evil. God gave Satan authority to test Job. God set the guidelines. Satan caused all of Job’s oxen, sheep and camels to be stolen, and his servants to be killed. He also caused a house to collapse in a wind and kill all the young men and Job’s sons and daughters. Satan then covered Job with painful boils.

Would anyone suggest that these trials that came to Job were not “evil?” Well here is what Job called them:

“But Job answered and said, O that my griefs were thoroughly weighed, and my calamity laid in the balances together!” Job 6:1-2

Calamity is the proper translation in this verse. Now then, does the argument (which is totally untrue) that God created “calamity” in Isa. 45:7 rather than “evil” carry any weight whatsoever in any practical way. No, Job’s “calamity” was very evil.

Who was responsible for these evils and calamity that came upon Job? Satan, right? Wrong. Satan was merely the club in God’s hand. Notice what Job was inspired to say:

“And said, Naked came I out of my mother’s womb, and naked shall I return thither: the Lord gave, and the Lord has taken away (It was “The Lord” Who took away all of Job’s possessions and his family. Satan was merely the club in God’s hand.)

Blessed be the name of the Lord. In all this Job sinned NOT, nor charged God foolishly [with wrong]” Job 1:21-22

Job had no “free will” in any of this. God was in total control and God was responsible for all that happened. God caused Job’s uprightness; God caused Job’s downfall; God caused Job’s restoration and blessing.

 “Let every soul be subject unto the higher powers. For there is no power BUT OF GOD: THE POWERS THAT BE ARE ORDAINED OF GOD” (Rom. 13:1).

And so we have read that God used Satan to try, and test Job, He used Satan to try, and test Jesus, He uses Satan to try, and test believers, and He also uses Satan to try, and test THE WHOLE WORLD:

God does not “allow” Satan to do ANYTHING. Satan was created by God to do exactly what God wants him to do—nothing more and nothing less.

Satan is an intricate (complex) and necessary creation of God to accomplish His awesome purpose and goal for the human race. When God desires something, HE CREATES IT. God desired an “adversary,” an “enemy,” but there is no natural adversary or enemy of God:

 “But as we were allowed [Gk: ‘approved’] of God to be put in trust with the gospel…”  I Thess. 2:4

That’s it! That is the totality of everything in the Bible that God “allows.”       

 “You shall be visited of the LORD of hosts with thunder, and with earthquake…” Isa. 29:6 Is this our free will???

“And, behold, there was a great earthquake for the angel of the Lord descended from heaven…” Matt. 28:2 Etcetera,

After each category of evil that I will scripturally prove comes from God, we need to ask ourselves, “Does God ‘allow’ all of these things, or does God create, cause, and bring these evils upon humanity?” God does not “allow” earthquakes, but rather He causes and brings earthquakes:

Sounds pretty much like what God did in the Indian Ocean to destroy the coastal regions of Indonesia, doesn’t it? Theologians refuse to believe that God would purposefully CAUSE the Christmas tsunami or the earthquake in HAITI. They don’t know what they talking about.

“And, Behold! I [GOD] even I, do bring a flood of waters upon the earth, to destroy all flesh, where in is the breath of life, from under heaven; and everything that is in the earth shall die” Gen. 6:17

 “The LORD shall smite you with a consumption, and with a fever, and with an inflammation, and with an extreme burning, and with the sword, and with blasting, and with mildew; and they shall pursue you until you perish” Deut. 28:22

POVERTY:

“The LORD makes poor…” I Sam. 2:7

“The rich and poor meet together: the Lord is the maker of all” Prov. 22:2

GOD CAUSES EVIL IN THE CITY

Let’s take a close look at that last Scripture in our list:

“…shall there be evil [Heb: ra—‘bad, evil’] in a city, and the Lord has not done it? Amos 3:6

There’s the question; what’s the answer? The answer from all Christendom is “Yes.” “Yes” there shall be all kinds of evil in a city, and the Lord has not done it. In fact, according to their teaching, the Lord does no evil in any city, ever. World famous Teachers/Preachers/Theologians/Authors always says that GOD DID NOT CREATE EVIL.  But what saith the Scriptures Amos 3:4-6 and Isaiah 45:7

EVERYTHING HAS A PRECISE APPOINTED TIME

God Almighty is responsible for everything and He brings about everything only at its precise "APPOINTED SEASON AND TIME." Let's read it:
"To everything there is a season and a time to every purpose under the heaven" Eccl. 3:1
The implications of this verse are staggering. The very foundation of human psychology and theology crumbles under the weight of this declaration of God’s Word. This is undoubtedly one of the ten most profound Scriptures in the entire Bible.
If we are to be honest and believe this verse, then we must concede that absolutely NOTHING is left out God’s profound declaration except man’s anti-scriptural theory of "free will."
The word "season" in the KJV is translated from the Hebrew word “z[e]man”, and is defined in Strong’s Hebrew Dictionary as: "APPOINTED season, occasion and definite time." And "purpose" which is translated from the Hebrew word “chephets” is defined as: "pleasure, desire and matter." Sometimes rendered as "purpose" or "event"
Here’s a second witness to this grand declaration:
"Because to every purpose [matter or event] there is time and judgment..." Eccl. 8:6
And a third witness:
"…for there is a time there for every purpose and for every work" Eccl. 3:17
Here are a couple translations that make this verse a little clearer:
"...for He has appointed a time for every matter and for every work..." The New Revised Standard Version
"For He has set a season for every event and for every deed..." The Concordant Literal Old Testament
There is no wasted motion in God's creation, purpose and plan. Everything has an appointed time, and everything includes: "every purpose, every work, every matter, every event, and every deed." Where pray tell does "free will" fit into all this? It doesn’t. It clearly DOESN’T. Man has no free will. There is no such thing as free will. Again we ask, since "EVERY work, purpose, matter, deed and event" under heaven must happen at an "APPOINTED TIME," how can there be such a thing as human, uncaused, "free-will?"
 [1] "To everything there is a season [appointed time], and a time to every purpose [matter or event] under the heaven" Eccl. 3:1
AND:
[2] "I know that, whatsoever God does...NOTHING can be put to it, nor ANYTHING taken from it: and GOD does it" Eccl. 3:14
Someone might see a contradiction in God’s teaching. If the two above Scriptures are true, then why does God warn against "adding to or taking away from His word?" Well, like everything else that is beyond the realm of carnal comprehension, all of these things too, have been foreordained and pre-determined to happen only at their "APPOINTED TIME." God has appointed a time for false prophets to add and God has appointed a time for false prophets to take away from His word.
"For OF HIM, and THROUGH HIM, and TO HIM, are ALL THINGS..." Rom. 11:36
Is there any real difference in saying that God "gives life" or that God "causes a baby to be born?" Is there any real difference in saying that God "takes away life" or that God "causes us to die?" When it comes to death, we prefer euphemisms (less offensive synonyms). We don't like to hear that "our Mother is DEAD!" We prefer to say that "Mother passed away." We don't want to be so honest or brutal as to say "God KILLED my son" but rather "God took my son." But the use of mellower-sounding euphemisms does not negate the fact that God appointed a time for us to be BORN, and He also has appointed a time when we must DIE.
Our will cannot change any of God’s "appointed events" or His "appointed times" in which each event must occur. You might think that you can. You might suggest that you will commit suicide and shorten your life. How silly—how totally unscriptural. No one can commit suicide unless and until the "appointed time" that God has foreordained that you commit suicide, if indeed God has ordained such a thing for you.
"There is no man that has power over the spirit to retain the spirit; neither has he power in [Heb: authority over’] the day of death..." Eccl. 8:8
Is this verse too difficult for anyone to understand? The Scriptures are clear: WAKE UP FELLOW CHRISTIANS!!
"Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it" Eccl. 12:7

 But there’s more:             

"Behold that which I have seen: it is good and comely for one to eat and to drink, and to enjoy the good of all his labour that he takes under the sun all the days of his life, which God gives him: for it is his portion." Eccl. 5:18
This is not exactly what the Hebrew manuscripts say. Here is what it should read: "...during the NUMBER of days in his life…" The word for "all" as in "all the days of his life," is the Hebrew word, mispar, and its first definition is "NUMBER." Man’s days are "NUMBERED." And God only knows the number.
Here’s another one:
"Seeing his days are determined, the number of his months is with Thee, You have appointed his bounds that he cannot pass" Job 14:5
The word "determined" comes from the Hebrew charats and means "to point sharply." Here we are told that man’s "months" are determined to a precise sharp point in time. There will be no variation in time as to when we must die.
Not only is our precise time of death appointed, but also our resurrection:
"If a man dies, shall he live again? All the days of my APPOINTED TIME will I wait [in the grave] till my change [resurrection] come" Job 14:14
Okay then, Does God say that He, "does according to HIS WILL …among the inhabitants of the earth..." Dan. 4:35?
But can’t the "free will/choice" of mankind stay or refrain God’s hand from accomplishing what He desires?
"My counsel shall stand, and I WILL DO ALL My pleasure.
I have spoken it; I WILL also bring it to pass.
I have purposed it, I WILL also do it" (Isaiah 46:10-11).

Man cannot change the plans and the will of GOD, don’t even dare, we need to study the scriptures properly.